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2023 NCLEX RN Physiology Comprehensive Exit Exam With NGN With Answers (30 Solved Questions)

Get the most out of your revision with 2023 NCLEX RN Physiology Comprehensive Exit Exam With NGN With Answers, featuring past test questions.

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NCLEX RN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAMS WITHNGN, 2023 VERSION (REAL EXAM)1. Ques(onCategory:Physiological AdaptationThe nurse is aware that the following terms used to describe reduced cardiac output andperfusion impairment due to ineffective pumping of the heart is:A. Anaphylactic shockB. Cardiogenic shockC. Distributive shockD. Myocardial infarction (MI)Correct Answer: B. Cardiogenic shockCardiogenic shock is shock related to ineffective pumping of the heart.2. Ques(onCategory:Physiological AdaptationA client with hypertension asks the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop tonormal levels?A. Kidneys’ excretion to sodium only.B. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and water.C. Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water.D. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and excretion of water.Correct Answer: C. Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water.The kidneys respond to rise in blood pressure by excreting sodium and excess water. Thisresponse ultimately affects systolic blood pressure by regulating blood volume.3. Ques(onCategory:Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

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Nurse Rose is aware that the statement that best explains why furosemide (Lasix) is administeredto treat hypertension is:A. It dilates peripheral blood vessels.B. It decreases sympathetic cardio acceleration.C. It inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzymes.D. It inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.CorrectCorrect Answer: D. It inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and water reabsorption in the loop Henle,thereby causing a decrease in blood pressure.Option A:Vasodilators cause dilation of peripheral blood vessels, directly relaxing vascularsmooth muscle and decreasing blood pressure.Option B:Adrenergic blockers decrease sympathetic cardio acceleration and decrease bloodpressure.Option C:Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors decrease blood pressure due to their actionon angiotensin.4. Ques(onCategory:Reduction of Risk PotentialNurse Nikki knows that laboratory results supports the diagnosis of systemic lupuserythematosus (SLE) is:A. Elevated serum complement levelB. Thrombocytosis, elevated sedimentation rateC. Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titerD. Leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levelsCorrect Answer: C. Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titerLaboratory findings for clients with SLE usually show pancytopenia, elevated ANA titer, anddecreased serum complement levels.

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Option A:Decreased levels of serum complement is usually associated with SLE. The cause ofcomplement activation in SLE is the formation of immune complexes, which in turn activatecomplement, predominantly by means of the classical pathway.Option B:Thrombocytopenia is one of the components of pancytopenia. It is a condition inwhich the platelet count is decreased.Option D:Clients may have elevated BUN and creatinine levels from nephritis, but the increasedoes not indicate SLE. The part of the kidney most frequently troubled by SLE is part of thenephron called the glomerulus, a tuft of capillaries that functions to filter substances from theblood. For this reason, the type of kidney inflammation most commonly experienced in lupus isglomerulonephritis.5. Ques(onCategory:Health Promotion and MaintenanceArnold, a 19-year-old client with a mild concussion is discharged from the emergencydepartment. Before discharge, he complains of a headache. When offered acetaminophen, hismother tells the nurse the headache is severe and she would like her son to have somethingstronger. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?A. “Your son had a mild concussion, acetaminophen is strong enough.”B. “Aspirin is avoided because of the danger of Reye’s syndrome in children or young adults.”C. “Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition.”D. Stronger medications may lead to vomiting, which increases the intracranial pressure (ICP).”CorrectCorrect Answer: C. Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worseningcondition.Narcotics may mask changes in the level of consciousness that indicate increased ICP.Option A:Acetaminophen is strong enough ignores the mother’s question and therefore isn’tappropriate.Option B:Aspirin is contraindicated in conditions that may have bleeding, such as trauma, andfor children or young adults with viral illnesses due to the danger of Reye’s syndrome.Option D:Stronger medications may not necessarily lead to vomiting but will sedate the client,thereby masking changes in his level of consciousness.6. Ques(on

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Category:Reduction of Risk PotentialWhen evaluating an arterial blood gas from a male client with a subdural hematoma, the nursenotes the Paco2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responsesbestdescribes the result?A. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP).B. Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated.C. Normal.D. Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation.Correct Answer: A. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure(ICP)A normal Paco2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, loweringPaco2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels.Option B:Oxygenation is evaluated through Pao2 and oxygen saturation.Option C:The normal PaCO2 level is between 35 to 45 mmHg. PaCO2 or the partial pressure ofcarbon dioxide is the measure of carbon dioxide within arterial or venous blood.Option D:Alveolar hypoventilation would be reflected in an increased Paco2. Alveolarhypoventilation is defined as insufficient ventilation leading to hypercapnia, which is an increasein the partial pressure of carbon dioxide as measured by arterial blood gas analysis.7. Ques(onCategory:Management of CareWhen prioritizing care, which of the following clients should the nurse Olivia assessfirst?A. A 17-year-old client 24-hours post appendectomy.B. A 33-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome.C. A 50-year-old client 3 days post myocardial infarction.D. A 50-year-old client with diverticulitis.Correct Answer: B. A 33-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome

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Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by ascending paralysis and potential respiratory failure.The order of client assessment should follow client priorities, with disorder of airways,breathing, and then circulation.Option A:The client who is post appendectomy has no signs of hemorrhage or unstable vitalsigns. Possible complications of appendectomy are bleeding, wound infection, peritonitis,blocked bowels, and injury to nearby organs.Option C:There’s no information to suggest the postmyocardial infarction client has anarrhythmia or other complication. About 90% of patients who have an acute MI develop someform of cardiac arrhythmia during or immediately after the event.Option D:There’s no evidence to suggest perforation for the client with diverticulitis as a priorityof care. Diverticula are small, bulging pouches that can form in the lining of the digestivesystem.when one or more of the pouches become inflamed, and in some cases infected, thatcondition is known as diverticulitis.8. Ques(onCategory:Physiological AdaptationJP has been diagnosed with gout and wants to know why colchicine is used in the treatment ofgout. Which of the following actions of colchicines explains why it’s effective for gout?A. Replaces estrogen.B. Decreases infection.C. Decreases inflammation.D. Decreases bone demineralization.Correct Answer: C. Decreases inflammation.The action of colchicines is to decrease inflammation by reducing the migration of leukocytes tosynovial fluid.Option A:Colchicine does not replace estrogen. Colchicine works by reducing the inflammationcaused by crystals of uric acid in the joints.Option B:Decreasing infection is not a mechanism of action of colchicine. The primarymechanism of action of colchicine is tubulin disruption. This leads to subsequent downregulationof multiple inflammatory pathways and modulation of innate immunity.

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Option D:Colchicine doesn’t decrease bone demineralization. The toxic effects of colchicine arerelated to this anti-mitotic activity within proliferating tissue such as skin, hair, and bone marrow.9. Ques(onCategory:Physiological AdaptationNorma asks for information about osteoarthritis. Which of the following statements aboutosteoarthritis is correct?A. Osteoarthritis is rarely debilitating.B. Osteoarthritis is a rare form of arthritis.C. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis.D. Osteoarthritis affects people over 60.Correct Answer: C. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritisOsteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis and can be extremely debilitating. It canafflict people of any age, although most are elderly.10. Ques(onCategory:Pharmacological and Parenteral TherapiesRuby is receiving thyroid replacement therapy, develops the flu, and forgets to take her thyroidreplacement medicine. The nurse understands that skipping this medication will put the client atrisk for developing which of the following life-threatening complications?A. ExophthalmosB. Thyroid stormC. Myxedema comaD. Tibial myxedemaCorrect Answer: C. Myxedema comaMyxedema coma, severe hypothyroidism, is a life-threatening condition that may develop ifthyroid replacement medication isn’t taken.
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