Dental Hygiene - Dent 1010 T#4

The following are examples of an AUTOGENOUS infection, EXCEPT:
A) Herpetic Whitlow
B) Bacteremia
C) Dental Caries

Define: autogenous infection

UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS must be followed for patients afflicted with or being:

A) HIV

B) HBV

C) Healthy

D) All of the above

Circle the element(s) REQUIRED for the transmission of infection or disease.
A) Intact skin and mucous membranes
B) Immunocompromised individual
C) Control of aerosols

The following are characteristics of CHICKEN POX or varicella - Zoster Virus, EXCEPT:
A) Route of infection via the mucosa of the upper respiratory tract
B) Highly infectious
C) No vaccine is available
D) Oral lesions may appear as vesicles

The following are OSHA’S MANDATES for the safety of health providers, EXCEPT:
A) Written infection control protocols
B) Documentation of biological monitoring procedures
C) MSDS sheets are filed away and are never gone over with staff
D) Hazardous chemicals are stored and labeled properly

Patients infected with HBV or HEPATITIS B may present themselves with the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A) Chronic carriers for as long as six months
B) Asymptomatic and undiagnosed
C) Saliva and blood - fluids are infectious
D) Were blood donors after 1985

HEPATITIS is inflammation of which organ?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Lung

Identify the FALSE statement regarding INFECTION CONTROL procedures:
A) Gloves must be worn whenever there is a risk for contacting blood, blood contaminated saliva, mucous membranes, or respiratory secretions.
B) Gloves should be washed between patients to prevent the spread of disease.
C) Protective clothing should be changed daily or when visibly soiled.

FAILURE OF STERILIZATION can be attributed to the following:
A) Overloading of cassettes
B) Proper time and temperature
C) Followed Manufacturer’s instructions

The following design and equipment selection will PROMOTE INFECTION CONTROL measures, EXCEPT:
A) Foot operated sink faucets, and soap dispensers
B) Smooth, uncluttered countertop surfaces
C) Carpeting on the floor
D) Tubing is straight and smooth

An ideal DISINFECTANT for surface disinfection should be all, EXCEPT:
A) Non-irritating to skin and eyes
B) Stable shelf-life
C) Effective killing of spores

HIV causes significant HEALTH CHANGES in infected individuals by:
A) Attacking the T4-lymphocytes, thus causing an increase in opportunistic infections
B) Increasing the CD4 lymphocyte count to 600 to 1000
C) Increasing capillary permeability, thus causing redness, itching and swelling in affected areas

An important DETERRENT against the transmission of disease in the dental office is:
A) Requiring that patients undergo HIV testing
B) Refusing to treat patients from high-risk groups
C) Vaccinating office staff who are exposed to bloodborne pathogens for HBV

Identify the method of sterilization MOST COMMONLY employed by dental offices:
A) Steam sterilization
B) Dry heat sterilization
C) Chemical vapor sterilization

When moving instruments from THE ULTRASONIC BATH to the sink for rinsing, one should wear:

A) Gloves

B) Eye protection

C) Mask

D) All of the above

To RETRIEVE ADDITIONAL GAUZE from a drawer during an oral prophylaxis appointment, one should do which of the following?
A) Use rinsed examination gloves
B) Use a paper towel
C) Ask the patient to assist

DRY HEAT sterilization is NOT suitable for:
A) Plastics
B) Metals
C) Glass

COLD STERILIZATION/disinfection is BEST suited for:
A) Plastics
B) Metals
C) Glass

All of the following are characteristics of common clinical signs of HIV 1 INFECTION, EXCEPT:

A) Candidiasis

B) Kaposi's sarcoma

C) Lymphadenopathy

D) Mucocele

Select the statement that best DESCRIBES OSHA REQUIREMENTS regarding occupational exposures:
A) The dental office must have a plan for documenting and evaluating employee occupational exposures
B) Employees are responsible for the documentation and evaluation for occupational exposures
C) OSHA directly monitors and evaluates employee occupational exposures

A patient appears for a scheduled appointment with a “FEVER SORE” beginning to form on the lower lip. Which is the proper way to handle this patient?
A) Treat as usual since he is a patient of record
B) Treat but coat the lip with some ointment for safe treatment
C) Re-Appoint since prodromal state may be contagious

The INCUBATION PERIOD FOR HEPATITIS B VIRUS is:
A) 2-6 days
B) 2-6 weeks
C) 2-6 months

Which of the method of heat sterilization would contribute to DULLING the instruments’ cutting edges (blades)?
A) Steam under pressure
B) Chemical vapor

Which of the following will contribute to THE PREVENTION OF DISEASE TRANSMISSION and lessen the chance of cross-contamination?

A) Utilization of barriers

B) High volume aspirations

C) Flushing water lines

D) All of the above

Which of the following METHODS OF STERILIZATION kills bacterial spores in the SHORTEST time?
A) Dry heat oven
B) Chemical vapor
C) Steam autoclave

Choose the CORRECT ORDER of preparation for personal protective equipment for the dental hygienist:
A) Gloves, glasses, mask
B) Glasses, mask, gloves
C) Mask, glasses, gloves

An infection that is NOT likely to be transmitted by blood transfusion is:
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B

ETHYLENE OXIDE has the following action on bacteria:
A) Antiseptic
B) Disinfects
C) Sterilizes

INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS is a disease that occurs mostly in adolescents and is caused by:
A) Varicella virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes Simplex type 1

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a SINGLE-STRANDED RNA VIRUS known as a:
A) Retrovirus
B) Tumor virus
C) Arbovirus

RUBELLA immunity in health care workers is important because:
A) A fetus of a pregnant female is at major risk until the third trimester
B) Of limited serological tests of diagnosis of rubella
C) Of chronic and persistent gastronephritis

The term UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS means that:
A) All procedures are performed as though the patients were infectious
B) Personal protective barriers are worn
C) Any precautions taken are adequate

The MOST COMMON NEOPLASM seen in AIDS patients is:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Kaposi's sarcoma

Which of the following indicates the EFFECTIVENESS OF STERILIZATION?
A) Change of color on autoclave tape or bag
B) Spore test
C) Following time and temperature requirements exactly

The VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS is responsible for which ONE of the following diseases?
A) Shingles
B) Measles
C) Infectious mononucleosis

The patient's history indicates that he is taking ISONIAZID, RIFAMPIN, AND ETHAMBUTOL. What is the patient being treated for?
A) Herpes simplex viruses
B) Tuberculosis
C) Legionnaires' disease

TRUE or FALSE

| Spatter particles remain airborne for a very long time.

TRUE or FALSE

| Herpes simplex is a viral infection and the virus is present in saliva even if the patient appear in good health.

TRUE or FALSE

| Hepatitis D cannot cause infection except in the presence of Hepatitis B.

TRUE or FALSE
It is acceptable to use the same gloves when removing barriers after treatment and setting up barriers for the next patient.

TRUE or FALSE

| Glutaraldehydes (cold sterilization) can destroy spores if instruments are left overnight.

TRUE or FALSE

| A vaccine is available for Hepatitis B

TRUE or FALSE

| Ultrasonic pre-cleaning in the ultrasonic is a very important step in instrument sterilization.

TRUE or FALSE

| Chlorine compounds destroy the microorganisms by oxidation of microbial enzymes and cell wall components.

The resistance a person has against a disease.

Artificially generated collection of pathogenic particles suspended in the air.

The time between exposure resulting in infection and the serological antibody marker; the infectious agent is transmissible, but the antibody test is negative.

No living pathogens present; a sterile state.

A person harboring a specific infectious agent with no clinical manifestations and who serves as a source of potential infection; may be chronic or temporary.

Pathogenic microorganisms are destroyed by direct contact with chemical or physical agents.

The interval of time between the first contact with the infectious agent and the appearance of clinical symptoms and signs of the disease.

Bacteria that are normally benign (non malignant) that invade the host under favorable conditions.