Back to AI Flashcard MakerNursing /Genetics & Cell Injury – Clinical Pathophysiology Part 2

Genetics & Cell Injury – Clinical Pathophysiology Part 2

Nursing80 CardsCreated 4 months ago

This advanced flashcard set is designed for students and healthcare professionals to review key concepts in genetics, chromosomal abnormalities, and cellular adaptation/injury. Topics include genetic disorders (e.g., Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, Huntington disease), mechanisms of inheritance, chromosomal anomalies, as well as cellular responses to stress such as atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and hypoxic injury. Useful for exam prep in nursing, medicine, and biomedical sciences.

Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:
A) cellular RNA.
B) major histocompatibility antigens.
C) different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
D) "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells.

b

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Key Terms

Term
Definition

Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:
A) cellular RNA.
B) major histocompatibility antigens.
C) different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
D) "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells.

b

Major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?
A) Red blood cells
B) B lymphocytes and macrophages only
C) All body cells except for red blood cells
D) Liver, heart, and bone marrow cells only

c

Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?
A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) Memory cells
D) Pluripotent cells

a

Which cell ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?
A) Helper T cell
B) Mast cell
C) Neutrophil
D) Macrophage

d

Which cell stimulates both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?
A) Plasma cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) B lymphocytes
D) Helper T cells

d

CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages and B cells are found on:
A) helper T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

a

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TermDefinition

Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:
A) cellular RNA.
B) major histocompatibility antigens.
C) different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
D) "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells.

b

Major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?
A) Red blood cells
B) B lymphocytes and macrophages only
C) All body cells except for red blood cells
D) Liver, heart, and bone marrow cells only

c

Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?
A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) Memory cells
D) Pluripotent cells

a

Which cell ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?
A) Helper T cell
B) Mast cell
C) Neutrophil
D) Macrophage

d

Which cell stimulates both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?
A) Plasma cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) B lymphocytes
D) Helper T cells

d

CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages and B cells are found on:
A) helper T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

a

Which process confers long-lasting immunity against a specific organism?
A) Production of memory cells
B) Activation of macrophages
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) Activation of the inflammatory response

a

The predominant antibody of a typical secondary immune response is:
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.

a

If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen X again, which of the following immune responses will occur?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Determinant
D) Immunosuppressive

b

What type of immunity is conferred when an individual is given a vaccine?
A) Natural immunity
B) Passive acquired immunity
C) Active acquired immunity
D) Alloimmunity

c

Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?
A) Neutralizing bacterial toxins
B) Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells
C) Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals
D) Opsonizing foreign antigen

c

Which is the main antibody transferred from a mother to an infant in breast milk?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgA

d

When a person has an allergic reaction to bee stings, which antibody causes the life-threatening hypersensitivity response?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG

c

Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Producing toxins
B) Stimulating apoptosis
C) Producing antibodies
D) Both A and B

d

How do natural killer (NK) cells differ from cytotoxic T (Tc) cells?
A) NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell.
B) NK cells are phagocytic.
C) NK cells can opsonize bacteria and viruses.
D) NK cells release toxins that kill the target cell.

a

A 20-year-old female has been diagnosed with AIDS. Laboratory testing would reveal diminished levels of:
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) B cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) T suppressor cells.

c

A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a large tapeworm. Which of the following cells would be produced in response to this worm?
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Natural killer cells

b

When a person has an allergic reaction to a bee sting, which type of hypersensitivity response is occurring?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

a

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following antibodies?
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE

d

The most severe type I hypersensitivity response is:
A) eczema.
B) allergic rhinitis.
C) serous otitis.
D) anaphylaxis.

d

Which cells are stimulated by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Mast cells
B) Macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) T lymphocytes

a

In type II hypersensitivity, tissue injury is caused by:
A) autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
B) autoantibody stimulation of NK cells that destroy target cells.
C) autoantibody opsonization of target cells and subsequent phagocytosis.
D) all of the above.

d

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that get deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

c

A positive tuberculin skin test for detecting the presence of tuberculosis is indicative of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

d

What is the effect of repeated exposure to an allergen in an atopic individual?
A) The allergic response gets worse.
B) Antibody production is suppressed.
C) Antibody formation remains constant.
D) Tc cell activity increases significantly.

a

Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE
B) Decreasing the amount of IgE in the body
C) Decreasing the amount of antigen in the bloodstream
D) Decreasing the responsiveness of the bronchi and blood vessels to histamine

a

Which of the following features is characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity?
A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity
B) Delayed response
C) Usually life-threatening
D) Mediated by the complement system

b

Type IV hypersensitivities, such as poison ivy reactions, are initiated by:
A) B cells that release IgD 24 to 48 hours after exposure.
B) the release of neutrophil chemotactic factor.
C) the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
D) the release of large quantities of IgE.

c

What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Autoimmune
C) Alloimmune
D) Immunosuppressive

c

Autoimmunity can result from all of the following hypersensitivities except:
A) type I.
B) type II.
C) type III.
D) type IV.

a

Manifestations of the autoimmune disease SLE include:
A) wheezing, eczema, and itching.
B) pulmonary edema, leg swelling, and vein distention.
C) arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.
D) nasal polyps, headache, and rhinorrhea.

c

A person with type O blood has which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?
A) A and B
B) Rh
C) O
D) None of the above


d

Transfusion of A-negative blood to an O-positive individual will have which of the following results?
A) Improved red blood cell count
B) Clumping and lysis of red blood cells
C) Production of anti-B antibodies
D) An Rh incompatibility reaction

b

Individuals with immunodeficiencies are at risk for:
A) hypersensitivity reactions.
B) fungal infections only.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) autoimmune diseases.

c

The microorganism that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a:
A) gram-negative bacterium.
B) gram-positive bacterium.
C) retrovirus.
D) protozoan.

c

The microorganism that causes AIDS can be transmitted through:
A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) breast milk.
C) blood transfusions.
D) all of the above.

d

HIV inserts its genetic material by binding to the _____ on the helper T cell.
A) gp 120 receptor
B) CD8 receptor
C) CD4 receptor
D) phospholipids

c

After initial infection with the HIV, most individuals:
A) experience severe symptoms of AIDS.
B) have mild flu-like symptoms.
C) have low levels of circulating antibodies against HIV.
D) manifest with central nervous system symptoms.

b

If blood cell counts from an individual with AIDS were analyzed, you would expect to see very low quantities of:
A) Th cells.
B) mast cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) neutrophils.

a

Serious systemic fungal infections and parasitic infections usually only develop in individuals who are:
A) immunocompromised.
B) young.
C) virally infected.
D) allergic.

a

Vaccine can be formed from all of the following agents except:
A) a live, infectious antigen.
B) an attenuated antigen.
C) a dead antigen.
D) a detoxified toxin

a

Which pair of relatives has the highest chance of sharing both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?
A) Mother and daughter
B) Father and son
C) Siblings
D) Mother and father

c

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

o IgE mediated
o Against environmental antigens (allergens)
o IgE finds to Fc receptors on surface of mast cells (cytotropic antibody)
o Histamine release
- H1 and H2 receptors occurs
- Antihistamines in rxn
o Manifestations: Itching, urticaria, conjunctivitis, rhinitis, hypotension, bronchospasm, dysrhythmias, GI cramps and malabsorption
Ex: Hay fever

Type II hypersensitivity

o Tissue specific - IgG/IgM
- Specific cell or tissue (tissue-specific antigens) is the target of an immune response
Does not destroy the target cell- malfunction
o Five mechanisms
1. Cell is destroyed by antibodies and complement
2. Cell destructions through phagocytosis
3. Soluble antigen may enter the circulation and deposit on tissues
4. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
5. Causes target cell malfunction- ex: myasthenia gravis
Ex: immediate drug reaction(allergy), hemolytic anemia, grave's disease(autoimmune), transfused bld cells, hemolytic disease of newborn(alloimmne)

Histamine acts through H1 receptors by:

contracting bronchial smooth muscles, causing brochial constriction, increasing vascular permeability, which causes edema and vasodiltion. Leads to an increase in blood flow to affected area.

H2 receptors interact with histamine results in:

increase in gastric acid secretion and a decrease in histamine released from mast cells and basophils

Type III Hypersensitivity

o Immune complex mediated - IgG/IgM
o Antigen-antibody complexes formed in the circulation and later deposited in vessel walls or extra vascular tissues
o Not organ specific
o Immune complex clearance
-Large-macrophages
- Small-renal clearance
- Intermediate- deposit in tissues - joint disease
Serum Sickness, Raynaud's phenomena, Lupus

Type IV Hypersensitivity

o Mediated by T lymphocytes- Don't involve antibody
-Destruction of the tissue usually caused by direct killing by toxins from Tc cells
- Th1 cells produce cytokines that recruit phagocytes, especially macrophages
o Examples: acute graft rejection, skin test for TB, contact allergic reactions (poison ivy), and some autoimmune diseases - diabetes, contact dermatitis (allergy), hashimoto thyroiditis, Rheumatoid arthritis
(autoimmune), graft rejection(alloimmune)

aneuploid cell

variation of chromosomal number that causes a cell to have too many or too few chromosomes; total number of chromosomes is not a multiple of 23 as it is in triploidy or tetraploidy.

complementary base pairing

the consistent pairing of adenine & thymine and of guanine & cytosine; ensures accurate replication of DNA.

Cri du chat syndrome

condition caused by deletion on chromosome 5; child has cat-like cry, low birth weight, mental retardation, microcephaly and heart defects

Down syndrome

trisomy-21; most well known aneuploidy, occurs in about 1:800 live births; characterized by mental retardation, sterility, poor muscle tone, congenital heart defects, characteristic facial features and lowered life expectancy (about 60 years).

Duplication

excess genetic material; usually less severe than deletions

Euploid

cells with a normal number of chromosomes (diploid = 46, haploid = 23)

Expressivity

the extent of variation in a phenotype associated with a particular genotype

Klinefelter Syndrome

individuals with XXY karyotype, may have moderate mental impairment, male appearance but may have hypogonadism and sterility, high pitched voice and mosaicism (duel XXY & XY karyotypes).

Triploidy

mutation that causes cells to have 3 copies of each chromosome, resulting in 69 chromosomes; incompatible with life

Turner Syndrome

monoploidy of sex chromosome (karyotype 45, X); may cause learning diabilities, short stature, coarctation of aorta and sterility.

abrasion

results from removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object

adaptation

A reversable, structural, or functional response both to normal (physiologic) conditions and to adverse (pathologic) conditions in order to maintain homeostasis.

algor mortis

postmortem reduction in body temp

asphyxial injury

injury caused by failure of cells to receive or use oxygen

bilirubin

normal yellow-green pigment of bile derived from the porphyrin structure of hemoglobin; excessive levels cause jaundice; unconjugated bilirubin is lipid soluble and can damage cell membranes

blunt force injury

mechanical injury to body resulting in tearing, shearing, or crushing; most common injury seen in healthcare, caused by blows or impact, MVA, and falls

carbon monoxide

an odorless, colorless and undetectable gas produced by incomplete combustion of fuels like gasoline; causes hypoxic injury

caseous necrosis

a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis that usually results from TB infection; the dead cells disintegrate but debris is not fully digested, so tissues resemble soft cheese

chopping wound

heavy edged instruments (axes, hatchets, propeller blades, etc) produce wounds with a combination of sharp and blunt force characteristics.

coagulative necrosis

occurs primarily in kidneys, heart, and adrenal cells; commonly results from hypoxia/ischemia; caused by protein denaturation (particularly albumin)

compensatory hyperplasia

an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate; occurs significantly in epidermal and intestinal epithelia, hepatocytes, bone marrow cells, fibroblasts, and some bone, cartilage, and smooth muscle.

contusion

bruising; bleeding into skin or underlying tissues

cyanide

chemical asphyxiant that blocks the intracellular use of oxygen; signs are similar to carbon monoxide posioning

disuse atrophy

atrophy that occurs in skeletal muscles with prolonged periods of non use

dry-lung drowning

drowning that occurs with little or no water entering lungs due to vagal nerve mediated larynogospasms; occurs in 15% of drownings

dysplasia

abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cels

dystrophic calcification

calcification of dying and dead tissues that occurs as a reaction to tissue injury; necrosis is one example

exit wound

gunshot injury; has the same appearance regardless of range of fire; size cannot determine if entrance or exit wound; usually has clean edges

fat necrosis

cellular dissolution caused by lipases that occur most often in breast, pancreas, and abdominal structures; lipases break down triglycerides, which combine with Ca, Mg, and Na ions to form opaque and chalk-white soaps.

fetal alcohol syndrome

caused by prenatal alcohol exposure; causes growth retardation, facial anomalies, cognitive impairment and occular malformation

frailty

clinical syndrome in older adults involving negative energy balance, sarcopenia, and diminished strength and tolerance for exertion, which leaves a person vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disability, disease, and death.

gangrenous necrosis

death of tissue from hypoxia, commonly from arteiosclerosis and affecting lower leg; may be be classified as dry, where the skin appears brown and wrinkled, or wet, where the skin appears cold, swollen and black as a result of liquefactive necrosis occurring at the site