NUR 256 (Medication Management) (Weeks 1-7) Lecture
“NUR 256 (Medication Management) Weeks 1–7 Lecture flashcards cover key teaching points, adverse effects, and safety considerations for major drug classes such as TCAs. This set supports clinical knowledge and patient education in medication management.”
When teaching a person receiving tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), it is important to remember that TCAs are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
a. Increased libido and increased appetite
b. Polyuria and polydipsia
c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
d. Hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares
When teaching a person receiving tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), it is important to remember that TCAs are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
a. Increased libido and increased appetite
b. Polyuria and polydipsia
c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
d. Hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares
c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
Key Terms
When teaching a person receiving tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), it is important to remember that TCAs are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of:
a. Increased libido and increased appetite
b. Polyuria and polydipsia
c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
d. Hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares
c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include
a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins
b. Barbiturates, antihistamines and local anaesthetics
c. Hydantoins and phenobarbitone
d. Benzodiazepines and sodium valproate
a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins
Haloperidol is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with:
a. Severe extrapyramidal effects
b. Severe sedation
c. Sever hypotension
d. Severe anticholinergic effects
a. Severe extrapyramidal effects
The nurse, who is monitoring a client taking phenytoin has noted symptoms of nystagmus, confusion, and ataxia. Considering these findings, the nurse would suspect that the dose of the drug should be
a. Reduced
b. Increased
c. Maintained
d. Discontinued
a. Reduced
Morphine Sulphate is classified as a
a. Schedule 1 agent
b. Schedule 2 agent
c. Schedule 4 agent
d. Schedule 8 agent
d. Schedule 8 agent
The half-life of a drug:
a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes
b. Is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a person
c. Is influenced by the fat distribution of the person
d. Can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram
a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes
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| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| c. Urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation |
| a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins |
| a. Severe extrapyramidal effects |
| a. Reduced |
| d. Schedule 8 agent |
| a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes |
| c. The persons renal function tests |
| a. How the drug will be absorbed |
| c. ‘medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid response’ |
| b. In 20-30 minutes, 50 per cent of the drug concentration will be eliminated |
| b. Magnesium Compounds |
| c. Swallow tablets or capsules whole |
| d. In the heart, CNS and stomach. |
| b. The CTZ |
| b. Cancer chemotherapy |
| b. Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives |
| d. Increase the water content of the intestinal contents |
| a. An increased heart rate with palpitation |
| c. administration techniques to promote therapeutic effects and avoid adverse effects |
| c. Antagonises the action of acetylcholine |
| a. Eformoterol and budesonide |
| c. Mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids |
| d. Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone |
| c. Lifestyle behaviours |
| c. Unrelenting cough |
| b. Alert the surgeon and mark the persons chart prominently |
| b. Interfering with the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II |
| b. Headache and dizziness |
| b. The person might develop cataracts as a result |
| a. Intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation |
| b. Process of cholesterol formation in the cell |
| a. Rhabdomyolysis |
| a. The importance of exercise |
When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse or midwife notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the person a) The persons liver function tests | c) The persons renal function tests |
People who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift | a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift |
People who are taking corticosteroids would be expected to report which of the following? a) Weight gain | a) Weight gain |
1 Glucocorticoids are hormones which a) Are released in response to high glucose levels | d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation. |
Despite repeated demonstrations of proper inhaler use by the nurse, the client is unable to return a proper demonstration on the training inhaler. The client is becoming frustrated. What is the best action for the nurse to take? a) Encourage the client to keep practicing just a little longer | c) Provide a spacer for use with the inhaler |
A person with hyperglycaemia will present with: a) Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia | a) Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia |
35 Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their e) Effect on the pancreas | f) Onset and duration of action |
A client with type 1 diabetes will use a combination insulin that includes NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know? a) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection of insulin based on peaks | b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity |
Treatment of diabetes may include which of the following? a) Replacement therapy with insulin | a) Replacement therapy with insulin |
The nurse would consider which of the following assessment findings as adverse effects to metformin therapy? a) Hypoglycaemia | c) Lactic acidosis |
| c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin |
| b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection |
| d) Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown and fat formation |
People who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include: a) physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift | physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift |
A person with many adverse reactions to drugs is tried on an inhaled steroid for treatment of Bronchospasm. For the first 3 days the person does not notice any improvement. You should: a) Switch the person to xanthine | b) Encourage the person to continue the drug for 2 to 3 weeks |
Atrophine and hyoscine work by blocking a) Nicotinic receptors only | c) Muscarinic receptors only |
A smoker who is being treated for hypertension with a beta-blocker is most likely receiving: a) A non-specific B-blocker | d) A B1- specific blocker |
You would caution a person who is taking an adrenergic blocker a) To avoid exposure to infections | c) Never to stop taking the drug abruptly |
Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it: a) Does not bind well to receptor sites | c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma |
The nurse or midwife would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice with a person with a) Hypertension | c) Pulmonary oedema |
A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the person a) A loop diuretic | d) An osmotic diuretic |
A nurse of midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should a) Give the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low | c) Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min |
Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often: a) Cause heart failure | c) Cause new arrhythmias |
A person who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs: a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised | a) Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised |
Carcinomas are tumours that originate in: a) Mesenchyme | d) Epithelial cells |
Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely to cause call death among healthy cells that: a) Have poor cell membranes | b) Are rapidly turning over |
Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different treatment phases. In assessing the appropriateness of another round of chemotherapy for a particular person, which of the following would be evaluated as the most important a) Hair loss | b) Bone marrow function |
A bacteriostatic substance is one that: a) Directly kills any bacteria that it comes into contact with | d) Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance |
The goal of antibiotic therapy is: a) to eradicate all bacteria from the system | c) To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection |
The penicillins a) Are bacteriostatic | b) Are bactericidal, interfering with the cell wallsa |
Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts: a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin | b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver |
The low-molecular weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is: a) Tinzaparin | d) Enoxaparin |
A thrombolytic agent could be safely used in: a) CVA within the last 2 months | b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours |
When administering a systemic antifungal agent, the nurse or midwife incorporates understanding that all systemic antifungal drugs function to: a) Break apart the fungus nucleus | c) Alter cell permeability of the fungus, leading to cell death |
Care interventions for the person receiving antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV probably would include: a) Monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy | a) Monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy |
While a person is receiving a general anaesthetic, he or she must be continually monitored because: a) The person has no pain sensation | b) Generalised CNS depression affects all body function |
Local anaesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anaesthetics can cause loss, in order, of the following: a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone | a) Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone |
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic: a) Can lead to addiction | b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for a larger dose |
The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because: a) There are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis | a) There are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis |
Drugs that are commonly used to treat grandma seizures include: a) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins | a) Barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins |
Combination oestrogens and progestin’s are commonly used as oral contraceptives. It is thought that this combination has its effects by: a) acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development | a) acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development |
Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts: a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin | b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver |
Oxytocin, a synthetic form of the hypothalamic hormone, is used to: a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contractions | a) Induce labour by stimulating uterine contractions |
Testosterone is approved for use in: a) Treatment of breast cancer | a) Treatment of breast cancer |
A drug reaction that does not occur unless the client has been previously exposed to the agent is a: a) Idiosyncratic reaction | c) Allergic reaction |
When the pharmacological effects of one medication are potentiated or diminished by another medication, this is termed a: e) Adverse drug reaction | g) Medication interaction |
Thyroxine is classified as a: a) Antithyroid agent | b) Thyroid replacement hormone agent |
At what time of day should thyroid replacement agents be taken? a) In the morning on an empty stomach | a) In the morning on an empty stomach |
Sally’s thyroid condition is being treated with thyroxine. She should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects of this agent? a) Bradycardia | b) Weight loss |
Medications that increase the force of myocardial contractions have what type of effect? a) Positive inotropic | a) Positive inotropic |
Digoxin is classified as a: a) Hypokalaemic | b) Cardiac glycoside |
Atropine and hyoscine work by blocking a) Nicotinic receptors only | b) Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors |
A health care provider prescribes adrenaline to a patient who was stung by several wasps 30 minutes ago. The nurse knows that the primary purpose of this medication for this client is to: a) Stop the systemic release of histamine produced by the mast cells | d) Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis |
The nurse is teaching a group of clients with cardiac conditions who are taking diuretic therapy. The nurse explains that individuals prescribed frusemide should: a) Avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage, cauliflower, and kale. | b) Rise slowly from sitting or lying position |
Clients prescribed spironolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assesses for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to: a) Retain potassium | a) Retain potassium |
A client with type 1 diabetes will use a combination insulin that includes NPH and regular insulin. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this important information for the client to know? a) The client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection of insulin based on peaks | b) The risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulin activity |
While teaching the client about taking oral tetracycline, which of the following does the nurse advise the client to do? a) Consume calcium rich products to decrease the duration of the antibacterial effect | d) Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sun block when outdoors. |
The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin and is instructed to take each dose of medication as evenly spaced apart during the day as possible. The nurse recognizes that this instruction is essential because: a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances | a) The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances |
The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following? a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) | a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) |
A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works. The nurse’s response should be based on an understanding that Plavix: a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation | a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation |
A client has a fever and is allergic to aspirin. Which medication will the nurse anticipate administering to reduce the client’s fever? a) Ibuprofen | c) Paracetamol |
The nurse should question the use of paracetamol for which client? a) A client with cirrhosis of the liver | a) A client with cirrhosis of the liver |
The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief. Which client is at the highest risk of developing hypotension, respiratory depression, and mental confusion? a) A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix | d) An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture |