Back to AI Flashcard MakerNursing /NUR 256 (Medication Management) (Weeks 8-14) Lecture/Lab Part 2
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic: a) Can lead to addiction b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
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Term
Definition
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic: a) Can lead to addiction b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication
b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because: a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis b) They can be stimulating c) They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs d) They do not affect the neurotransmitters
a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
The nurse or midwife would expect administration of a NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which of the following a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy d) Relieve pain during labour and birth e) Treat myasthenia gravis f) Treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia
a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy
Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it: a) Does not bind well to receptor sites b) Rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and is lost c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma d) Is very unstable
c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts: a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin Immediately, so it is the drug of choice in emergency situations
b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is: a) tinzaparin b) dalteparin c) heparin d) enoxaparin
d) enoxaparin
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| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic: a) Can lead to addiction b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses c) Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it d) Should rely on the person’s request for medication | b) Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses |
The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because: a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis b) They can be stimulating c) They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs d) They do not affect the neurotransmitters | a) They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis |
The nurse or midwife would expect administration of a NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which of the following a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy d) Relieve pain during labour and birth e) Treat myasthenia gravis f) Treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia | a) Facilitate endotracheal intubation b) Facilitate mechanical ventilation c) Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy |
Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non-depolarising NMJ blockers because it: a) Does not bind well to receptor sites b) Rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier and is lost c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma d) Is very unstable | c) Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma |
Warfarin an oral anticoagulant, acts: a) To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver c) As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin Immediately, so it is the drug of choice in emergency situations | b) To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver |
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing deep venous thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is: a) tinzaparin b) dalteparin c) heparin d) enoxaparin | d) enoxaparin |
A thrombolytic agent could be safely used in: a) CVA within the last 2 months b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours c) Recent, serious GI bleeding d) Caesarian birth. | b) Acute MI within the last 3 hours |
Evaluating a person who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which of the following? a) The presence of petechiae b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth c) Dark-coloured urine d) Yellow colour sclera or skin e) The presence of ecchymotic areas f) Loss of hair | a) The presence of petechiae b) Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth c) Dark-coloured urine e) The presence of ecchymotic areas |
The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following? a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) b) Prothrombin time (PT) c) Platelet counts d) International normalised ratio (INR) | a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) |
A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works. The nurse’s response should be based on an understanding that clopidogrel: a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation b) Activates antithrombin III and subsequently inhibits thrombin c) Inhibits enzymes involved in the formation of vitamin K d) Converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve fibrin clots | a) Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation |
An example of a drug allergy is: a) Dry mouth occurring with use of an antihistamine b) Increased urination occurring with use of a thiazide diuretic c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin d) Skin rash associated with procainamide use. | c) Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin |
A person is experiencing a reaction to the penicillin injection that was administered approximately 30 minutes ago. The healthcare provider is concerned that it might be an anaphylactic reaction. What signs and symptoms would validate her suspicion? a) Rapid heart rate b) Diaphoresis c) Constricted pupils d) Hypotension e) Rash f) The person reporting a panic feeling | b) Diaphoresis e) Rash f) The person reporting a panic feeling |
A woman has repeated bouts of bronchitis throughout the autumn and has been taking antibiotics. She calls the clinic with complaints of vaginal pain and itching. When she is seen, it is discovered that she has developed a yeast infection. You would explain to her that: a) Her bronchitis has moved to the vaginal area b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection c) She probably has developed a sexually transmitted disease related to her lifestyle d) She will need to take even more antibiotics to treat this new infection | b) She has developed a superinfection because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection |
A drug reaction that does not occur unless the client has been previously exposed to the agent is a: a) Idiosyncratic reaction b) Teratogenic reaction c) Allergic reaction d) Liberation reaction | b) Teratogenic reaction |
When the pharmacological effects of one medication are potentiated or diminished by another medication, this is termed a: a) Adverse drug reaction b) Medication incompatibility c) Medication interaction d) Placebo effect | b) Medication incompatibility |