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Human Genetics, 12th Edition Test Bank

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The genes of the human leukocyte antigens (HLA) system encode cell surface 1) A) phospholipids. B) histamines. C) glycoproteins. D) glycolipids. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) Major histocompatiblity complex (MHC) genes account for about ________ percent of the genetic influence on immunity. 2) A) 40 B) 50 C) 20 D) 30 Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by fusing a 3) A) mast cell and a macrophage. B) B cell and a cancer cell. C) B cell and a T cell. D) T cell and a plasma cell. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4) The two major types of lymphocytes are 4) A) RBCs and WBCs. B) T and B cells. C) A and B cells. D) cytokines and antibodies. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    5) A woman is given RhoGAM to protect future fetuses from hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn if 5) A) she is Rh + and the fetus is Rh - . B) she is Rh - and the father is Rh + . C) she and the fetus are both Rh - . D) she is Rh + and the father is Rh - . Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6) In an allergic reaction, allergens bind ________, which release allergy mediators. 6) A) histamines on mast cell surfaces B) IgG antibodies on B cell surfaces C) allergy genes on chromosome 5 D) IgE antibodies on mast cell surfaces Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) The simplest type of antibody consists of 7) A) 4 polypeptide chains, two heavy and two light. B) 4 polypeptide chains of about equal size. C) 2 polypeptide chains, one large and one small. D) a single folded polypeptide chain. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8) People do not develop a secondary immune response to influenza because 8) A) the causative viruses mutate each season. B) the primary immune response is sufficient to protect against flu. C) the immune system mutates from season to season. D) secondary immune responses are only possible against bacteria. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    9) The difference between innate immunity and adaptive immunity is that 9) A) innate immunity targets cancers and transplants; adaptive immunity targets viruses and bacteria. B) adaptive immunity releases cytokines; innate immunity produces antibodies. C) adaptive immunity attacks pathogens; innate immunity attacks microbes. D) innate immunity is fast and generalized; adaptive immunity is slow and specific. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10) An antigen is 10) A) a molecule that can elicit an immune response. B) a protective protein that the immune system produces. C) a nucleic acid only. D) a protein or nucleic acid. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11) All of the following are cytokines except 11) A) interferons. B) interleukins. C) tumor necrosis factor. D) collectins. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12) The constant region of an antibody molecule is 12) A) the binding site for two antigens. B) the binding site for antigens. C) similar in all antibody molecules. D) part of the heavy chains only. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    13) The primary function of plasma cells is to 13) A) secrete antibodies. B) remember immune responses. C) protect phagocytes. D) secrete cytokines. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) A vaccine protects by stimulating a person to produce a(n) ________ response when a pathogen is encountered. 14) A) primary immune B) anaphylactic C) tertiary immune D) secondary immune Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 15) ________ is used to track the outbreak of infectious diseases. 15) A) Reverse vaccinology B) Immunotherapy C) Genome sequencing D) Vaccination Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 16) Inflammation helps to fight infection by 16) A) producing collectins, cytokines, and red blood cells. B) producing antibodies that kill viruses and bacteria. C) creating an environment in the body that is hostile to pathogens. D) limiting the number of phagocytes at the infection site. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    17) In reverse vaccinology, researchers develop vaccines by 17) A) considering how rapidly pathogens divide in laboratory culture. B) injecting human antigens into pathogen genomes. C) culturing pathogens in laboratory glassware. D) consulting genome sequence to identify genes that encode hidden antigens that may be used as the basis for a vaccine. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) Scleroderma is a disorder that can be caused by 18) A) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the mother's cells. B) repeated exposure to the scleroderma virus. C) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are very different from those of the mother. D) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the father's cells. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) An example of an autoimmune disorder is 19) A) colon cancer. B) severe combined immune deficiency. C) systemic lupus erythematosus. D) hay fever. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    20) The functions of antibodies include 20) A) activating complement, inactivating pathogens, and clumping pathogens. B) creating a warm and swollen area near the site of infection, which harms the pathogens. C) activating macrophages, stimulating mast cells, and increasing the white blood cell count. D) causing B cells to bind to T cells, forming clumps that are visible to the immune system. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 21) Infecting people with ________ led to vaccination against smallpox. 21) A) swine flu virus B) cowpox C) measles virus D) chickenpox virus Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 22) In an allograft, the tissue donor is 22) A) the recipient. B) a dizygotic twin. C) a monozygotic twin. D) a non-relative. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) In a less severe form of combined immune deficiency, the individual 23) A) lacks both T and B cells. B) has no white blood cells. C) has normal numbers of T and B cells. D) has some T cells but lacks B cells. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6

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    24) HIV destroys the immune system by primarily destroying 24) A) B cells. B) erythrocytes. C) cytotoxic T cells. D) helper T cells. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 25) The human immune system consists of 25) A) about 10,000 cells that increase rapidly to trillions when an infection takes hold. B) all of the bacteria and viruses that are normally present in our bodies plus our blood cells. C) about 2 trillion cells, their secretions, and the organs where they are produced and stored. D) the heart and blood vessels and the blood cells within the vessels. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 26) The protection against a specific infectious disease that arises when all or nearly all of a population is vaccinated is termed 26) A) mandatory vaccination. B) immune preparedness. C) government-controlled health care. D) herd immunity. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 27) Monoclonal implies that the 27) A) antigens are from a single source. B) antibodies are identical. C) antibodies come from a twin. D) cancer cells are all of one type. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7

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    28) Heart valve replacement in humans using a pig valve is an example of a(n) 28) A) autograft. B) xenograft. C) isograft. D) allograft. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 29) The part of an antigen binding site on an antibody that binds antigen is the 29) A) idiotype. B) epitope. C) intron. D) idioblast. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 30) ________ bonds hold together the polypeptide chains that form an antibody. 30) A) Phosphodiester B) Disulfide C) Hydrogen D) Peptide Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 31) Cluster-of-differentiation antigens are found on 31) A) T cells, enabling them to recognize foreign antigens on macrophages. B) macrophages, enabling them to link with both B and T cells. C) B cells, where they make recognition of self antigens on macrophages possible. D) B cells, where they determine the antibody types that are made. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8

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    32) People who cannot become infected with HIV have 32) A) deletions in the genes encoding the CCR5 coreceptors. B) a gene encoding a protein that attacks the virus. C) anti-HIV antigens. D) extra T cells. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 33) Identifying combinations of ________ alleles is useful in tissue typing, establishing identity, and estimating disease risk. 33) A) antibody B) HLA C) erythrocyte D) HIV Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 34) One way an autoimmune disorder can arise is if 34) A) a person inhales an allergen. B) a nonself antigen coincidentally resembles a self antigen. C) too many T cells die in the thymus. D) a person encounters an immunodeficiency virus. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 35) Helper T cells secrete 35) A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) immunoglobulins. D) cytokines. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9

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    36) The new approach to type blood, by identifying the instructions for the cell-surface antigens, is 36) A) serology. B) gene therapy. C) genotyping. D) phenotyping. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 37) The enzyme ________ allows HIV to make a DNA copy of its RNA genome. 37) A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) reverse transcriptase D) DNA transcriptase Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 38) Antibody diversity is a consequence of 38) A) shuffling of antibody genes into different combinations during B cell development. B) differential regulation of antibody gene expression under different circumstances. C) the huge number of antibody genes. D) the many types of viruses that exist in nature. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 39) Which type of white blood cell secretes specific antibodies? 39) A) T cell B) Cytokine C) Erythrocyte D) B cell Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10

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    40) The three basic characteristics of adaptive immunity are 40) A) generality, diversity, and retention. B) prevention, protection, and memory. C) specificity, diversity, and memory. D) suppression, activation, and transference. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 41) B cells secrete antibodies when they 41) A) are stimulated by activated T cells. B) are engulfed by macrophages. C) bind antigens. D) undergo apoptosis. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 42) Cytotoxic T cells target 42) A) B cells and macrophages. B) skin cells and blood cells. C) cancer cells and virally infected cells. D) bacterial cells and fungal cells. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 43) Severe combined immune deficiencies (SCID) affect both 43) A) white blood cells and red blood cells. B) mast cells and macrophages. C) helper B cells and cytotoxic B cells. D) humoral and cellular immunity. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11

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    44) The human leukocyte antigen genes are on the 44) A) long arm of chromosome 18. B) short arm of chromosome 2. C) short arm of chromosome 6. D) long arm of chromosome 6. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 45) Experimental gene therapy can be used to treat a form of severe combined immune deficiency, SCID-X1. 45) Answer: True False Explanation: 46) The function of dendritic cells is to signal T cells, starting an immune response. 46) Answer: True False Explanation: 47) Antigen-presenting dendritic cells are found in the skin and in the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts. 47) Answer: True False Explanation: 48) Research suggests a link between a mutation in the skin protein filaggrin and allergic reaction. 48) Answer: True False Explanation: 49) Mutation of the CCR5 coreceptor may have enabled people to survive various European plagues during the Middle Ages. 49) Answer: True False Explanation: 50) People homozygous recessive for a 32-base deletion in the CCR5 gene do not become infected with HIV. 50) Answer: True False Explanation: 12

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    51) Vaccinating a substantial portion of the population against an infectious disease establishes "herd immunity." 51) Answer: True False Explanation: 13

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The part of a chromosome that shortens with each cell division, functioning as a "clock," is the 1) A) centromere. B) centrosome. C) telomere. D) centriole. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) Human stem cells are valuable in drug development because they can be used to 2) A) study the latest stages of the disease that would have unfolded if the person hadn't died. B) grow human embryos in culture, on which drugs can be tested. C) replace experimental animals such as rats and mice. D) create experimental organisms, such as rats and mice. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) The internal architecture of a cell consists of 3) A) chitin and chlorophyll. B) microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments. C) cilia and flagella. D) lipid bilayers. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    4) Which of the following is a cure for people with recurrent infection from Clostridium difficile? 4) A) Renal transplantation B) Genetic restructuring C) Fecal transplantation D) Grafting Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5) Organelles protect a cell by 5) A) containing powerful enzymes that kill any bacteria that enter. B) sequestering biochemicals that could dismantle other cellular structures. C) forming a thick outer barrier. D) placing flag-like molecules on a cell's surface, which identify that cell as belonging to a particular person. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6) Egg cells are 6) A) diploid germ cells. B) diploid somatic cells. C) haploid somatic cells. D) haploid germ cells. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) The major macromolecules that make up cells are 7) A) vitamins and minerals. B) eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and archaea. C) carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids. D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorus. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    8) "Adult" stem cells are more accurately called tissue-specific or somatic stem cells because 8) A) some adults do not have them. B) they are also present in the tissues of embryos, fetuses, and children. C) an adult body also contains embryonic stem cells. D) whether they are present or not in an adult depends upon the individual's level of maturity. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) Which of the following is true of the human microbiome? 9) A) High blood sugar following weight-loss surgery is partly due to a changed gut microbiome. B) Antibiotics do not alter the gut microbiome. C) An altered microbiome hastens starvation in malnourished children. D) The microbiome consists primarily of cells that belong to the human body. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10) The organelle that consists of a stack of flat, membrane-enclosed sacs is the 10) A) nucleus. B) Golgi apparatus. C) mitochondrion. D) nucleolus. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11) A difference between a stem cell and a progenitor cell is that 11) A) progenitor cells are rare but stem cells are abundant. B) a progenitor cell cannot self-renew and a stem cell can. C) progenitor cells are not present in embryos but stem cells are. D) a stem cell cannot self-renew and a progenitor cell can. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    12) Cilia are built of 12) A) microtubules. B) micronutrients. C) microorganisms. D) microfilaments. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) Select the true statement. 13) A) Somatic cells are diploid, meaning that they have two copies of the human genome. B) Stem cells are haploid, meaning that they have one copy of the human genome. C) Sperm and egg cells are diploid, meaning that they have two copies of the human genome. D) Somatic cells are haploid, meaning that they have one copy of the human genome. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) Which of the following bacteria benefits humans? 14) A) Enteritis Salmonella B) Streptococcus Pyogenes C) Salmonella Typhi D) Lactobacillus Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 15) In mitochondria, 15) A) all of a cell's DNA is replicated. B) energy from nutrients is converted into a form that a cell can use. C) fats and carbohydrates are degraded. D) sugars are added to proteins. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    16) During apoptosis, caspases 16) A) cause mitochondria to replicate their DNA. B) alter the cell surface so that viruses can more easily enter. C) remove introns from DNA. D) activate enzymes that cut DNA into same-sized pieces. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 17) In a human cell, the genetic material is in the 17) A) ribosome. B) cytoplasm. C) nucleus. D) lysosome. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) About ________ average-sized bacteria could fit into a human cell. 18) A) 10 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 100 Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) The two major stages of the cell cycle are 19) A) mitosis and apoptosis. B) interphase and prophase. C) mitosis and meiosis. D) interphase and mitosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    20) A researcher identifies an abnormality in a protein that causes a particular inherited illness. To develop a treatment, it would be most helpful to know 20) A) the other types of molecules that cause or contribute to the disease. B) how the mutation was caused. C) if this type of mutation occurs in all species. D) which cells are affected and how to replace the protein's function in them. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 21) Humans belong to domain ________, which is distinguished by cells that have ________. 21) A) Archaea; ancient organelles B) Prokarya; organelles C) Eukarya; organelles D) Prokarya; proteins Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 22) At the point in the cell cycle when mitosis begins 22) A) each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids joined at the centromere. B) the number of chromosomes is reduced to half. C) the cell enters a dormant phase. D) DNA replication begins. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) The cell cycle is a series of events a cell undergoes as it prepares to 23) A) pass along a signal. B) die. C) adhere to another cell. D) divide. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6

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    24) A type of vesicle that ferries molecules, such as cholesterol, to lysosomes is an 24) A) ectosome. B) episome. C) oprahsome. D) endosome. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 25) A molecule that binds a cell surface receptor is called a 25) A) ligand. B) nuclear pore. C) peroxisome. D) nucleic acid. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 26) The defining characteristic of a stem cell is 26) A) its origin from a progenitor cell. B) self-renewal. C) the ability to turn into a cancer cell. D) self-repair. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 27) The cell type with the most mitochondria is 27) A) sperm. B) fat. C) nerve. D) muscle. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 28) The nuclear lamina is 28) A) part of the nucleus that holds RNA. B) a fibrous layer that lines the inner face of the nuclear membrane. C) the sac that holds the genetic material. D) the site of protein synthesis. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7

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    29) The order of events in the cell cycle is 29) A) G 1 to S to G 2 to mitosis. B) G 1 to G 2 to S to mitosis. C) Mitosis to G 1 to G 2 to S. D) S to G 1 to G 2 to mitosis. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 30) The cells within and on us that are not actually of us constitute the 30) A) parasite family. B) exome. C) cytoskeleton. D) human microbiome. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 31) Cristae are 31) A) bits of sugars in the Golgi apparatus. B) types of insects. C) types of genes. D) membranous structures that are parts of mitochondria. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 32) DNA replicates during the ________ phase of the cell cycle. 32) A) G 1 B) S C) G 2 D) G 3 Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8

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    33) Cells contain twice the normal number of independent chromosomes briefly during 33) A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) telophase. D) anaphase. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 34) A cell that can divide to give rise to any cell type, including those of membranes that support the developing embryo, is 34) A) a progenitor cell. B) multipotent. C) a differentiated cell. D) totipotent. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 35) Which type of components aggregate and interact to form the epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve tissues in the human body? 35) A) Differentiated cells B) Stem cells C) Secondary meristems D) Prokaryotic cells Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 36) Apoptosis is a form of 36) A) programmed cell division that is a normal part of development. B) programmed cell death that is a normal part of development. C) cellular duplication. D) cellular adhesion. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9

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    37) Which of the following acts as a quality control center for cells? 37) A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Lysosome C) Nuclear lamina D) Plasma membrane Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 38) Based on the composition of the plasma membrane, how do you predict a protein with one section of hydrophobic amino acids and one section of hydrophilic amino acids would be situated in the membrane? 38) A) The hydrophilic portion of the protein could embed in the membrane, and the hydrophobic portion could extend into the cell. B) The hydrophobic portion of the protein could embed in the membrane, and the hydrophilic portion could extend into the cell. C) Both the hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions of the protein could embed in the membrane. D) This protein could not be found in the membrane. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 39) Factors that control how often a cell divides include 39) A) where chromosomes are located within the nucleus. B) which chromosomes are active and which are not. C) telomere lengths, hormonal signals, crowding, and growth factors. D) the activity level of the person, diet, and environmental exposures. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10

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    40) An experimental treatment for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease), which causes gradual loss of the ability to move, sends four genes into cells sampled from a patient's skin. This procedure reprograms the cells, which are then exposed to molecules and genes that stimulate them to develop as healthy versions of the cells affected in the disease. These cells are implanted into the patient. They are 40) A) apoptotic cells. B) embryonic stem cells. C) induced pluripotent stem cells. D) adult connective tissue stem cells. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 41) The cellular basis of muscular dystrophy is that some of a child's muscle cells 41) A) have too much of a contractile protein and become weak. B) lack DNA. C) have combined into a structure that cannot contract. D) lack a protein that enables them to withstand the force of contraction. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 42) Ribosomes are in the cells of 42) A) eukaryotes only. B) vertebrates only. C) animals only. D) all organisms. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 43) Human embryonic stem cells that are used in research are 43) A) taken from stillbirths that do not have genetic diseases. B) cultured in the bodies of human embryos from outer cell mass cells. C) cultured in laboratory dishes from inner cell mass cells taken from a very early embryo. D) taken from aborted human fetuses between 10 and 12 weeks of gestation. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11

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    44) Which of the four major chemicals found in cells comprise telomeres? 44) A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Nucleic acids D) Lipids Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 45) What is the sequence of events involved in the production of proteins that is secreted? 45) A) The protein is produced as a linear molecule in the nucleus, then exits through nuclear pores. On the ER the protein folds into its active form and at the Golgi apparatus is packed into a vesicle, which carries it across the plasma membrane and out of the cell. B) A hormone signals the gene that encodes the protein to be transcribed into mRNA in the nucleus. The mRNA is translated into protein on the ER, then processed and folded in the Golgi apparatus, and then sent out of the cell in a vesicle. C) A hormone signals a protein-filled vesicle to move from the plasma membrane into the cell and into the nucleus, where it stimulates transcription of the appropriate gene into mRNA. The mRNA exits the nucleus and is translated into protein on the ER and processed and folded in the Golgi apparatus. Finally, the protein is transported out of the cell in a vesicle. D) A hormone binds to the plasma membrane, signaling proteins near the membrane to fall apart into amino acids. These enter the nucleus and stimulate replication of the gene encoding the protein. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 46) People with giant axons lose the ability to move and see because 46) A) their hemoglobin leaks out of the cells of the body. B) they lack a protein, called gigaxonin, which normally breaks down intermediate filaments and recycles their components. C) they have an excess of CFTR proteins, which entrap salt inside cells. D) apoptosis in their body rapidly and neatly dismantles cells into membrane-enclosed pieces that a phagocyte can mop up. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12

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    47) The cytoskeletal component that consists of different protein types is: 47) A) a fibrous filament. B) a microfilament. C) a microtubule. D) an intermediate filament. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 48) Chromosomes coil tightly around chromosomal proteins and condense during 48) A) metaphase. B) telophase. C) prophase. D) anaphase. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 49) The organelle that is the equivalent of a cellular garbage disposal system is the 49) A) mitochondrion. B) glucosome. C) lysosome. D) nucleus. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 50) During S phase, replicated chromosomes are joined at their 50) A) middlemeres. B) centrosomes. C) telomeres. D) centromeres. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Current thinking about the cause of Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome, which is a severe rapid aging condition, is that 1) A) the body is unable to secrete insulin. B) a protein called progerin forms clumps in the brain in a way that removes DNA from the tips of telomeres, shortening chromosomes and lifespan. C) abnormal lamin A protein stresses the nuclear membrane, disturbing DNA repair such that mutations accumulate that cause the diseases of aging. D) the part of the brain that controls aging is damaged. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) The allantois 2) A) gives rise to the yolk sac. B) is part of the placenta. C) destroys old blood cells. D) forms blood cells. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) Body parts derived from mesoderm are the 3) A) pancreas, kidneys, and lymphatic vessels. B) respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra. C) epidermis, hair, nails, and glands of skin. D) muscle tissue, bone tissue, and internal reproductive organs. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    4) Centenarians are 4) A) people who live past 90. B) people in the military. C) segmented worms. D) people who live past 100 years. E) people who die just before their 100 th birthday. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) E) 5) Amniotic fluid 5) A) is a fetal form of blood. B) prevents the fetus from becoming thirsty. C) cushions the embryo. D) absorbs wastes the fetus excretes. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6) The stem cells from which sperm cells descend are called 6) A) secondary spermatocytes. B) patagonia. C) spermatids. D) spermatogonia. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) Fertilization usually occurs in the 7) A) ovary. B) uterine tube. C) endometrium (uterine lining). D) uterus. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    8) Which of these events occurs specifically in the embryo and not the fetus? 8) A) Maturation of the respiratory system B) Hair growth C) Bone replaces cartilage D) Neural tube formation Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) The placenta 9) A) is where blood cells form before the fetus has bone marrow. B) is the membrane that contains the fetus. C) nourishes the fetus and secretes hormones that maintain the pregnancy. D) is a membrane surrounding the embryo that gives rise to the blood vessels in the umbilical cord. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10) The ________ are the male gonads. 10) A) urethra B) testes C) scrotum D) penis Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11) Two oocytes released from the same ovary at the same time and fertilized by two sperm results in 11) A) monozygotic twins. B) blighted ova. C) dizygotic twins. D) cloned embryos. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    12) Which of the following is true about the fetal stage of development? 12) A) It consists of the first three months of the pregnancy. B) The organ systems initially form, and then grow. C) The head is disproportionately small at the beginning of the stage. D) It comes after the embryonic period. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) The lower end of the the uterus narrows and leads to the ________ which opens into the vagina. 13) A) cervix. B) rectum. C) ovary. D) labia. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) The major body part(s) derived from ectoderm is/are 14) A) bone tissue. B) the respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra. C) the nervous system and skin. D) the liver and pancreas. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 15) The number of possible chromosome combinations in a human gamete, considering independent assortment but not crossing over, is about 15) A) 8 million. B) 8. C) 800. D) 80,000. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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