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2024 BS161 Comprehensive Final Exam With Answers (1043 Solved Questions)

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    BS 161 FINAL EXAM, , BS161 PCQ & RIQ LATEST UPDATED 2024 What is fermentation? - Making ATP w/out oxygen You go on a diet and loose 15 pounds of stored fat, where does the carbon from the fat go? - It was converted to CO2 and then released. Based on the purpose and products of glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle, what molecules are likely to decrease the rate of these processes by feedback inhibition? - High Levels of ATP and High levels of NADH + H+ The movement of electrons from NADH to Oxygen is __________. To what is the flow of electrons energetically coupled? Why is this important? - favorable (exergonic). Release s a lot of energy used to help make ATP. Its immediately coupled to moving protons. What is the purpose of the process in the cell in the electron transport chain? - Using energy to produce a proton gradient, proton is moving back down gradient and uses energy to produce ATP from ADP and Pi. How does the processes in electron transport chain connect to glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the Krebs cycle? - NADH and FADH2 is produced by glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and Krebs cycle Is the process of the electron transport chain endergonic or exergonic? - exergonic because its releasing energy, which is a - ΔG You create vesicles containing ATP synthase with the catalytic head facing out. Choose all the conditions that would result in ATP synthesis. - pH inside vesicle =5, pH outside vesicle =7

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    What is the catabolism of proteins? - proteins are broken down into amino acids and Acetyl- CoA What is the catabolism of fats? - fatty acids get broken down and produce NADH and FADH2 During oxygenic photosynthesis the carbon from CO2 is being ____ to make sugar and the oxygen from H2O is being ____ to make O2. - reduced, oxidized What does the Calvin cycle do? - forms sugar from CO2 using ATP and NADPH What are the three stages of Calvin cycle? - carbon fixation, reduction, regeneration What does carbon fixation do in the Calvin cycle? - adding CO2 to an acceptor What does the reduction do in the Calvin cycle? - reduces carbon, uses NADPH as source of electrons to do reduce carbon What does regeneration do in the Calvin cycle? - regenerates RuBP in order to keep adding carbon How many rounds of the Calvin Cycle are required to produce one molecule of glucose? - 6 Where does PSI and PSII take place? - thylakoid membrane Where does ATP synthase occur? - inner membrane of mitochondria Where does Rubisco take place? - in the stroma of the Calvin cycle What are light reactions? - use light energy to make ATP from ADP and Pi, and reduce NADP+ to NADPH Chlorophyll that is removed from chloroplasts and excited by a photon of light releases both heat and light. Which statements accurately describe this phenomena? - the energy of light

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    emitted plus the heat release equals the energy of the light absorbed. light energy transiently increase the PE of an electron Where does glycolysis occur? - cytosol Where does fermentation occur? - cytosol Where do light reactions occur? - thylakoid membrane Where does the Calvin cycle occur? - stroma What has a higher proton concentration? Stroma or thylakoid membrane? - Thylakoid membrane substrate-level phosphorylation - Kinase, occurs in ETC oxidative phosphorylation - ATP synthase, occurs in ETC What does the lactic acid do in fermentation? - Creates NAD+ which allows glycolysis to keep going The inner membrane space of the ETC is: - Higher concentration, more acidic (LOW pH) The matrix of the membrane in the ETC is: - Lower concentration, more basic (HIGH pH) Which way are electrons moving against gradient? - Low to High concentration ATP synthase allows what? - Allows proton transport with the gradient What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain? - H2O What is the most reduced carbon? - CH4 What is the most oxidized form of carbon? - CO2

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    Gene - a specific sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA that is located usually on a chromosome and that is the functional unit of inheritance controlling the transmission and expression of one or more traits by specifying the structure of a particular polypeptide or other protein Alleles - one member of a pair (of any of the series) of genes occupying a specific spot on a chromosome (called locus) that controls the trait; one of the possible forms of a gene. Most genes have two alleles, a dominant allele and a recessive allele. Chromosome - a structure in all living cells that consists of a single molecule of DNA bonded to various proteins and that carries the genes determining heredity. In all eukaryotic cells, the chromosomes occur as threadlike strands in the nucleus Homologous chromosomes - a chromosome with the same gene sequence as another Sister chromatids - pieces of identical DNA that are crucial in the process of replication and division; two identical strands joined by a common centromere as a result of a chromosome that duplicated during the S phase of the cell cycle Which argument best defends a characteristic of the solute seen on the right? - The solute is hydrophobic because there are is no observable evidence of electrostatic interactions between the partially charged atoms of the water molecule and the solute What best describes a lipid? - a molecule that does not dissolve well in water The flow of information in a cell proceeds in what sequence? - DNA is a template to make RNA, RNA is a template to make proteins What processes occur in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell? - Transcription and RNA processing

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    What is represented in the image on the right? - an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase charging a tRNA What accurately identifies the template strands for these genes? - Strand 1 is the template strand for the histone gene and strand 2 is the template strand for the transporter gene what aspect of nucleic acid structure is important in determining which strand is the template strand? - double stranded nucleic acids are antiparallel what additional reasoning is needed to completely explain which strand is used as the template strand? - RNA polymerase moves from the promoter to the terminator adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the new RNA The building block on the right is used to produce what type of polymer? - RNA How should the side chain of the amino acid depicted on the right be classified and why should it be classified this way? - It should be classified as polar because the side chain contains atoms with significantly different electronegativies which form polar bonds. Prokaryotic protein synthesis is faster than eukaryotic protein synthesis. What characteristic of prokaryotic transcription and translation makes the overall process faster than in eukaryotes? - Prokaryotes lack a nucleus so translation of an mRNA can begin even before transcription of the mRNA is complete. What correctly lists the components necessary for transcription? - RNA polymerase, DNA, and RNA nucleotides What do you predict would happen if an aminoacyl tRNA synthetase was mutated so that it always attached the wrong amino acid to its tRNA? - The cell would die because this would create errors in most proteins and erupt their function In an effort to determine which type of molecule contained the genetic information, scientists treated extracts from dead virulent bacteria with enzymes, incubated the treated

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    extracts with live non virulent bacteria, and checked for production of virulent bacteria. Which type of enzyme prevented production of virulent bacteria? - DNase What role do the functional groups in the peptide bond play in alpha helices? - They form hydrogen bonds with functional groups in other peptide bonds of nearby amino acids What of the four levels of protein structure is represented in the image to the right? - Tertiary What level of protein structure involves IMFs between two different polypeptide chains? - Quaternary What type of molecule is depicted on the left and what features make it this type of molecule? - It is a disaccharide because it is made up of two monosaccharides What statement below most likely describes the role of amino acid 87 in the structure and function of this enzyme? - This interaction between amino acid 87 and 35 causes the polypeptide to fold into a specific tertiary shape. when the Substrate binds to the enzyme, amino acid 90 is interacting with the hydroxyl group on the Substrate. What type of interaction is most likely taking place between amino acid 90 and the Substrate? - Hydrogen bonding you think that amino 50 is interacting with the NH3+ the substrate. Using this hypothesis, which of the following amino acids would you predict might be found at position 50 and why might you make this prediction? - Aspartic acid because it will form a favorable ionic interaction with the substrate. what do you predict would happen in cells where a mutation changed amino acid 50 to a different amino acid that cannot interact with the amino group and why would this happen? - The cells would divide more rapidly because the structure of the protein determines the function of the protein.

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    In eukaryotes, what determines where transcription starts? - General transcription factors interact with promoters and bind to RNA polymerase indicating where transcription starts. What are critical regions of a tRNA molecule? - amino acid attachment site and anticodon loop Alternative splicing allows for: - different polypeptides to be made from a single gene Alternative splicing means that: - different spliced forms contain different combinations of axons Depicted here are five codons from the coding strand of DNA and the very short peptide they encode:original DNA sequence: 5'ATG-TCT-AAC-TTA-TAA 3' protein sequence: Met-Ser-Asn-Leu-STOP A mutation adds the nucleotide T between the first and second codons in the DNA sequence creating a mutant version of the gene. - What will happen to the length of the mRNA produced from the mutant version of this gene? - It will be one nucleotide longer because RNA poly does not read codons Depicted here are five codons from the coding strand of DNA and the very short peptide they encode:original DNA sequence: 5'ATG-TCT-AAC-TTA-TAA 3' protein sequence: Met-Ser-Asn-Leu-STOP A mutation adds the nucleotide T between the first and second codons in the DNA sequence creating a mutant version of the gene. - What will happen to the length of the protein produced from the mutant version of this gene? - It will be shorter because the third codon is now a stop codon which will cause translation to end Depicted here are five codons from the coding strand of DNA and the very short peptide they encode:original DNA sequence: 5'ATG-TCT-AAC-TTA-TAA 3'

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    protein sequence: Met-Ser-Asn-Leu-STOP A mutation adds the nucleotide T between the first and second codons in the DNA sequence creating a mutant version of the gene. - What best describes the impact of having extra nucleotide in this gene? - The extra nucleotide causes a shift in the reading frames Explain how information is encoded in the structure of DNA - The importance of IMF's in DNA - Relationship between information in DNA and structure of proteins - information is encoded in DNA by the order of nucleotides, which determines the structure and function. RNA polymerase comes along and pairs complementary base pairs. Functional groups are important because they allow for bases to be paired correctly thought IMF's. DNA determines the structure of proteins What component of a phospholipid is found in the interior of a lipid bilayer? - the fatty acids What does the molecule on the right represent? - Unsaturated fatty acid Imaging the molecule shown is found in a membrane that contains a mixture of phospholipids with saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. How does the bend in the tail impact the fluidity of the membrane? - The bend prevents tight packing which decreases the number of van der Waals interactions meaning less energy is required to allow lipids to move past each other. How does increasing the percentage of phospholipids containing unsaturated fatty acids typically change the fluidity of a membrane if the temperature remains constant? - It typically increases the fluidity Imagine you find a plant with a mutation that makes it unable to produce polyunsaturated fatty acids. Compared to a normal plant that can produce polyunsaturated fatty acids, predict how this mutation most likely influences the plant's ability to survive as temperature changes. - The plant with the mutation will not survive as well at lower temperatures

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    Based on this model of protein targeting, which statement accurately describes the synthesis and targeting of a protein that is part of the electron transport chain? - The protein is synthesized on free ribosomes and require an additional signal reach its target In normal cells, acid hydrolyses are targeted to the lysosome. In i-cell disease, the enzyme in the golgi that normally adds the signal needed to target acid hydrolases to the lysosome no longer functions. What happens to acid hydrolases in cells with i-cell disease? - They will be secreted to the extracellular space What type of amino acids would you likely find in the signal anchor sequence that causes integral membrane proteins to be embedded into membranes and why would you expect to find that type of amino acid in this sequence? - Hydrophobic amino acids because they need to cluster with the lipid tails in the interior of the membrane away from water You perform an experiment in which the phosphate groups on the phospholipids on the outside of a cell are labeled with a fluorescent dye. A new cell is then created by fusing the labeled cell with a second cell in which the phospholipids are not labeled. Based on the way phospholipids move in a lipid bilayer, where would you expect to see the fluorescent dye after 15 minutes? - Randomly distributed around the outside of the new cell Which intracellular compartment forms transport vesicles, modifies lipids, and sorts membrane and secreted proteins? - The Golgi apparatus What would LEAST likely require a transport protein to cross the plasma membrane of a red blood cell? - O2 How is a carrier protein different from a channel protein? - Carrier proteins undergo conformational change so that they are open on alternate sides of the membrane while channels are open on both sides of the membrane simultaneously. Some plant cells take advantage of the high concentration of protons outside the cell to move solutes, such as sucrose, across the plasma membrane into the cell where the sucrose concentration is already relatively high. This type of transport is an example of: - Secondary active transport

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    Most mammalian cells import glucose from the bloodstream. The blood has a higher concentration of glucose than the cell's cytosol. What transport mechanism is most likely involved in the import of glucose in this case? - Facilitated diffusion The ΔG of hydrolysis of ATP is -7.3 kcal/mol. If ATP hydrolysis is used as an energy source in primary active transport that moves Ca2+ ions across a membrane, what is a reasonable ΔG for the movement of the calcium ions? - +5 kcal/mol During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme- catalyzed reaction has a ΔG of - 20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the ΔG for the new reaction? - -20 kcal/mol In the metabolic pathway illustrated on the right, the starting material (substrate A) is converted to one of two end products, E or G. Letters indicate the substrates and products, and numbers indicate the enzymes. If a cell does not need more of molecule G, but the cell does need more of molecule E, how will it meet its needs without wasting energy? - G will inhibit enzyme 5 what mechanism does G use to inhibit the enzyme? - allosteric inhibition What happens to glucose as it passes through glycolysis? - One molecule of glucose becomes two molecules of pyruvate and some of the carbon atoms are oxidized during the process. What best describes the role of light in the process shown on the right? - Because this Is the Calvin cycle, light is not directly involved Is this process anabolic or catabolic and why? - This is an anabolic process because it is using energy to reduce carbon and build a more complex molecule. What sequences accurately represents the order in which electron acceptors are used during photosynthesis and cellular respiration? - NADP+; CO2; NAD+; O2

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    A substrate has a hydroxyl group at the site indicated by arrow I. Predict which amino acid side chain would be located in the enzyme at the position indicated by arrow II to help provide favorable binding between the enzyme and the substrate. - Side chain c what is favoring the interaction between the side chain of the amino acid and the hydroxyl group on the substrate? - Hydrogen bonding From a metabolic standpoint, what is happening in the reaction seen below? - Carbon is being oxidized and NAD+ is being reduced Animals breathe in air containing oxygen and breathe out air containing less oxygen. The consumed oxygen is used: - as an electron acceptor in the mitochondrial electron transport chain Which product of the electron transport chain is required by the citric acid cycle and why is it required for the citric acid cycle? - The NAD+ produced by the electron transport chain is required as an electron acceptor in the citric acid cycle. What wavelengths of light do green leaves absorb? - both blue light (~400 to 500 nm wavelengths) and red light (~600 to 700 nm wavelengths) What happens to the light energy absorbed by plants? - most of the light energy excites electrons needed to generate a proton gradient and reduce NADP+ From a metabolic standpoint, which molecule has more potential energy, acetaldehyde or ethanol? - Ethanol. NADH to NAD+ is being oxidized because NADH is losing electrons to become NAD+, since this is a coupled reaction Acetaldehyde to Ethanol must be reduced (gain e-). Since more reduced form has more PE, it would be ethanol. explain the role of DNA in the process of cellulosic ethanol production in C. bescii. - The role of DNA is to store genetic information in order to make proteins. Enzymes work to speed up reactions and lower activation energy by aligning substrates.

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    what would happen to ATP production if a protein that allows facilitated diffusion of protons were added to the organelle and explaining why this would happen. - If a protein allowed facilitated diffusion was added, the protons would follow its concentration gradient and not create a high concentration gradient in the lumen. This concentration gradient is needed to power the ATP synthase and create ATP. ATP production would DECREASE The ability of a cells to respond to the presence of a hormone requires: - expression of the appropriate receptor in the target cells What best provides a general list of the four processes that happen when a cell receives a signal? - reception, signal transduction, cell response, termination What type of signaling requires transport of hormones through the bloodstream? - Endocrine In class we discussed four types of cell communication, endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, and contact-dependent. Which of the following is true in all of these types of signaling - A receptor is required to receive the signal What type of receptor typically dimerizes as part of activation? - A receptor kinase What is the difference between a cytosolic cellular response and a nuclear cellular response? - A cytosolic cellular response changes the activity of proteins already present in the cell while a nuclear cellular response changes gene expression This model shows ___ integral membrane proteins of which ___ are receptor proteins. - 4, 2 Based on Figure GM, what role does PKA play in these signaling pathways? - It phosphorylates phosphorylase kinase and activates it Based on Figure GM, what is true about glycogen synthase? - It is active when dephosphorylated

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    Using Figure GM and your knowledge of biological switches, choose a reasonable explanation of how signal transduction is terminated when epinephrine is no longer present. - The activity of PP1 causes dephosophorylation of phosphorylase kinase which inactivates phosphorylase kinase by causing it to change shape slightly. cAMP binds to a protein call EPAC which changes the activity of EPAC. What type of molecular switch is EPAC? - It is a ligand-based switch Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells reproduce by different processes. Regardless, all cells must ________ before they divide. - make a copy of their genetic information Figure K is shown on the right. What is shown in the picture on the right side of Figure K? - There are two homologous chromosomes each composed of two sister chromatids. If there were no mutations during the previous round of DNA replication, which most likely describes the genetic information in the picture on the right of Figure K. - There are two pairs of DNA double helices with each pair having identical genetic information. Where in the cell cycle would you be able to find chromosomes like those depicted in Figure K? - After the G2/M checkpoint before the spindle checkpoint. What it a major determinate of CDK activity? - The presence of cyclins which bind to CDK causing CDK to change shape and become active. Activated CDKs are required to pass which checkpoints? - both the G1/S and the G2/M checkpoints Shown to the right is a thumbnail of Figure SSP. A full size image for Figure SSP is available on the back of the exam. Use this figure to answer the next three questions.Activation of this signaling pathway controls what cellular process? - passage of the cell through the spindle checkpoint

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    Using Figure SSP as a model, how would a mutation that prevents interactions between MAD and Cdc20 impact signaling and why would it do this? - This mutation would cause activation of signaling before all kinetochores were attached because Cdc20 would not be inhibited. Using Figure SSP as a model, what is the role of separase and how does it accomplish this role? - It releases sister chromatids by acting as an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of cohesin. What best describes why different types of cells in your body function differently? - Different cells have the same genes but these genes are expressed differently. How can modifying histone tails impact the cell? - Modifying histone tails can impact gene expression because it effects chromatin structure What description of general transcription factors and specific regulatory transcription factors is true? - General transcription factors are present in every cell type and different specific regulatory transcription factors are present in different cell types. What genes are UNLIKELY to be expressed in eye cells - the gene that produces insulin What is the function of the promoter in an operon? - It is a DNA sequence that allows RNA polymerase to bind the DNA and begin transcription What can an E. coli cell do when the lac operon is expressed that it cannot do when the lac operon is not expressed? - It can use lactose as an energy source How are cAMP and catabolite activator protein (CRP) affected by glucose concentration? - when glucose concentration is low, cAMP levels are high and CRP binds to the lac operon and increases expression What accurately describes negative control of the lac operon? - Binding of LacR to the DNA which decreases the ability of RNA polymerase transcribe the lac genes.

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    Describe the function of G proteins in signaling and explain why normal G protein function would be required to produce - G-proteins function when a G-coupled receptor is activated. This causes the G-protein to release GDP and bind to GTP and become active. Explain why the OCT-4 gene is expressed in stem cells but not expressed in adult skin cells. - It requires the specific "instructions" to produce the mRNA and protein for OCT-4 in stem cells. It would not cause the expression of the INS gene because INS and OCT-4 each have different specific transcription factors that allow expression Predict how a mutation in the region of the DNA indicated by the arrow in box W would impact expression of the OCT-4 gene and explain how the mutation would have this impact. - A mutation would change the enhancers sequence which would either cut expression or would be only slightly effected. Small -> Big molecules - -REQUIRE energy: anabolism - ENDERGONIC (+ delta G) Big -> Small molecules - -RELEASE energy: catabolism -EXERGONIC (- delta G) What are allosteric inhibitors? - stopping processes for over working themselves NAD+ to NADH is: - reduction signal anchor sequence: - tells transporter to put specific proteins in the membrane nuclear localization signal - nucleus not an option, so goes to extracellular space CO2 -> glucose - reduction (endergonic) ATP -> ADP is: - + delta G, requires energy What is Evolution? - -Lineages of organism change over time

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