Network Topologies, Protocols, and Configuration Part 2

An administrator is using a wire map tester to identify different types of issues with cabling. What kinds of issues can the wire map tester detect? (Select all that apply.)

a) Incorrect pin-out
b) Short
c) Bad port
d) Continuity

An administrator measures the resistance between the two ends of a cable and verifies that the cable has a break. What tool allows the administrator to test the cable in this manner?

a) TAP (test access point)

b) Tone generator

c) Loopback adapter

d) Multimeter

A network is running slow. To determine why the administrator wants detailed properties for the cable run, including how much attenuation, crosstalk, noise, and resistance are on it. What tool should the administrator use to get all of this information?

a) Spectrum analyzer

b) OTDR

c) Multimeter

d) Cable tester

An administrator expected a newly installed network cable to operate at 1Gbps. However, when the administrator tested the cable, the speed was never actually that fast. What is the actual performance of the data traveling across the media called?

a) Power over ethernet
b) Throughput
c) Attenuation
d) Speed

An administrator is configuring a router from their laptop through a pale blue cable. What kind of cable is this?

a) Unshielded twisted pair cable
b) Console cable
c) Crossover cable
d) Straight through cable

New workstations are set up in the office. They currently do not have an Internet Protocol (IP) address set and are connected to the network. These workstations will need to work with applications that are time sensitive. What must the system administrator configure for these applications to function correctly?

a) Create a CNAME record.

b) Enable DHCP on the NIC.

c) Configure the correct NTP settings.

d) Point to the correct DNS server.

Users mention that a video conferencing service is not working properly. The service ties to the company domain name for business purposes. Which domain name system (DNS) record does the tech identify as incorrect?

a) SRV
b) CNAME
c) AAAA
d) TXT

Client systems receive IP address configurations via a DHCP server. When negotiating the address information assignment, what relates to available leases? (Select all that apply.)

a) ARP
b) DORA
c) T2
d) T1

A set of workstations have been installed in an office floor. The network administrators are preparing to join these servers to the domain after they receive an Internet Protocol (IP) address from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. What are the minimum DHCP scope options required to simplify these computers joining the domain? (Select all that apply.)

a) Default gateway
b) Lease time
c) NTP IP address(es)
d) DNS IP address(es)

A Windows Active Directory (AD) domain uses companyname.com. An external web server uses www.companyname.com. Users on the corporate network cannot reach the web server when using a www prefix. An IT engineer modifies which of the following to remedy the issue?

a) DNS forwarder
b) External DNS zone
c) Internal DNS zone
d) Third-party DNS

A virtual private network exists between two sites. The main site delivers Internet protocol (IP) addresses to the remote site. A configuration change places the remote site on a different subnet. An IT engineer reconfigures which of the following?

a) Lease
b) Reservation
c) Relay
d) Pool

A company has an Active Directory domain called specks.com. The company has an on-demand subscription for cloud services and wants to ensure their internal applications are accessible to their remote employees via their Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in the cloud. The company will control all these services and applications. Which of the following will the company most likely be using throughout their organization? (Select all that apply.)

a) External DNS server

b) Internal DNS server

c) Third-party DNS server

d) Cloud-hosted DNS server.

A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) application does not work properly with company email address accounts. A tech concludes that a domain name system (DNS) record is incorrect. Which record type does the tech modify to restore services?

a) TXT
b) CNAME
c) AAAA
d) SRV

An engineer configures a DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) record to list the names allowed to receive email from a given source. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure?

a) CNAME record
b) "A" record
c) TXT record
d) SRV record

An engineer configures a sender policy framework (SPF) record to list the server names allowed to send email for a company. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure?

a) "A" record
b) CNAME record
c) SRV record
d) TXT record.

A network administrator is working with the in-addr.arpa domain of the company's Domain Name System (DNS) server. The admin creates a pointer (PTR) record for a server's Internet Protocol (IP) address 10.60.100.21. Which of the following Enterprise network components is the administrator working with?

a) The MAC reservations
b) The reverse lookup zone
c) The IP exclusions
d) The IP helper

What might cause zone transfers of domain name system (DNS) record updates to fail between multiple DNS servers?

a) Misconfigured stratum
b) Incorrect DNS records
c) Missing root server
d) Incorrect scope

A server administrator configures a network's internal DNS to set the records for all servers. Users mention that one server, in particular, is not reachable by name. What does the administrator investigate?

a) Forward lookups
b) Recursive lookups
c) DNS caching
d) Time to live settings

Which DNS record type is responsible for identifying a primary authoritative name server?

a) NS
b) SOA
c) Root
d) MX

In which of the following would an IT engineer configure a PTR?

a) DNS Hierarchy
b) Forward lookup zone
c) Reverse lookup zone
d) DNS Forwarder

A network administrator configures all printers in an organization to be issued specific IP addresses from a DHCP server. What does the administrator configure to accomplish this? (Select all that apply.)

a) Dynamic assignment
b) Scope
c) Static assignment
d) Scope options

An engineer needs to update a DNS infrastructure with new host names. Which configuration does an engineer modify with host records that map to IP addresses?

a) Recursive lookups
b) DNS caching
c) Forward lookups
d) Time to live settings

A restaurant chain's corporate offices connect via a hierarchical star network topology. What term does CompTia use to describe the links that aggregate and distribute traffic from multiple different areas of the network?

a) Control layer
b) Infrastructure layer
c) Access/edge
d) Backbone

A real estate agent is uploading photos of the latest listing onto the corporate website. Once the agent uploads the photos, they pass through multiple servers undergoing quality checks and sorting to ensure that they appear in the most relevant searches. What term best describes the passing of data from server to server?

a) East-West
b) North-South
c) Top-of-rack switching
d) Branch office vs. on-premises data center vs. colocation

A network technician is setting up a new office space by plugging in computers, printers, and telephones to workgroup switches via structured cabling and ports on the wall. What tier of the network hierarchy is the network technician plugging these devices?

a) Access/edge
b) Management plane
c) Backbone
d) Control layer

Name the model typically used in spine and leaf topologies to connect distribution switches to server nodes and provide higher bandwidth than the typical workgroup switch.

a) Core

b) Software-defined network

c) Fibre Channel

d) Top-of-rack switching

A business with three different locations needs to share data between storage area networks at each site. This business has a strict budget they need to maintain while achieving this function. Which of the following options can link storage area networks without the need for expensive fiber-specific switches and adapters?

a) Software-defined network
b) Fibre Channel
c) Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI)
d) East-West

What is a cost-effective way to connect a Storage Area Network (SAN)?

a) Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
b) Infrastructure layer
c) Software-defined network
d) Fibre Channel

A network designer is explaining the options a business owner has to manage his business' network infrastructure. One option the business owner can choose will allow devices to provision and decommission quickly and to configure the devices via code in scripts. What is the term for the option described?

a) Management plane
b) Distribution/aggregation layer
c) Backbone
d) Software-defined network

Which type of authentication factor should be applied if a network administrator wants to implement a method incorporating gestures as either an intrusion detection or continuous authentication mechanism, despite its susceptibility to error?

a) Something you have
b) Something you do
c) Something you are
d) Something you know

Users on a network are complaining about entering credentials each time they want to access multiple log-in portals. What can the network administrator implement to prevent the need for users to re-authenticate to access different resources? (Select all that apply.)

a) Single Sign-On (SSO)
b) Single-factor authentication
c) Kerberos
d) Multi-factor authentication.

The help desk support team of a company is being inundated with tickets regarding user requests for a solution to better manage the need to enter multiple passwords in different web portals. Analyze and explain the disadvantage of the network administrator implementing single sign-on (SSO) as a solution.

a) A user who authenticates with Windows also authenticates with Exchange.
b) Each user does not manage their accounts.
c) Compromising the account compromises multiple services.
d) Users authenticate once to gain access to all resources.

A network manager for ABC company in Seattle, WA adds host Advert20 to Active Directory. Advert20 is a client in the Advertising department. Compile this information to design the distinguished name of the client.

a) OU=Advertising, CN=Advert20, O=ABC, L=Seattle, ST=WA, DC=com, DC=ABC
b) CN=Advert20, OU=Advertising, O=ABC, L=Seattle, ST=WA, DC=com, DC=ABC
c) DC=com, DC=ABC, ST=WA, L=Seattle, O=ABC, OU=Advertising, CN=Advert20
d) CN=Advert20, OU=Advertising, O=ABC, L=Seattle, ST=WA, DC=ABC, DC=com

The recent vulnerability assessment has left a company's IT team concerned about business continuity during a catastrophic event that could involve a data breach or even denial of service (DoS) attacks. At this point, what items would the team most strongly consider when doing a business impact analysis (BIA)? (Select all that apply.)

a) Vendor products
b) Data availability
c) Business process
d) CVEs

An organization considers moving some internal services to the cloud. Which of the following descriptions relates to a hybrid cloud infrastructure?

a) Multi-tenant use
b) Third-party secure
c) Utilization benefits
d) Shared costs

An organization looks to implement a solution where remote workers can access both cloud-based resources and on-premise data. Some users will use company-issued laptops, while others will use personally owned desktop computers. Which solution does the IT department deploy?

a) A multitenancy environment

b) A hybrid cloud

c) A virtual private network

d) A desktop as a service environment

A cloud implementation for a growing business requires additional processing power. How will an engineer provide additional resources in real-time?

a) Implementing scalability
b) Implementing a private direct-connect to the CSP
c) Implementing elasticity
d) Implementing orchestration

A company uses several Windows Servers for Active Directory, SQL Server, RADIUS, DHCP, and DNS. Management pushes to move to the cloud. IT suggests moving services in a staggered fashion as to not cause disruption. IT moves SQL server instances to the cloud as a start. IT migrates this specific function to which of the following service types?

a) SaaS
b) IaaS
c) Hybrid
d) PaaS

Management at an online retailer meet to discuss delivery options for an online shopping experience. IT proposes using a method where transactions take place in a cloud environment, but using a back-end locally. Which delivery model does IT suggest as a solution?

a) Hybrid

b) Private

c) Public

d) Community

IT implements Google Suite for Business at a large firm. This implementation negates the need to install any local applications. Considering the implementation, which type of cloud service does IT deploy?

a) IaaS
b) Hybrid
c) SaaS
d) PaaS

An organization moving to a cloud infrastructure joins one of its partners' platforms. Evaluate the given statements and conclude which best fits the organization's approach.

a) Multi-tenant use
b) Private link
c) Shared costs
d) Utilization benefits

A network administrator wants to deploy an intrusion detection system. Which of the following authentication factors incorporates biometric recognition that uses a template which is created by analyzing behavior?

a) Something you are
b) Something you know
c) Something you do
d) Something you have

What is the primary authentication method used when only the target device verifies administrator credentials on the system?

a) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
b) Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)
c) Local authentication
d) Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

A medium organization would like to deploy a secondary security measure that can attract attackers if they are able to bypass the screened subnet firewalls. What security measure would provide this additional layer of security near the network boundary?

a) Network access control
b) Network segmentation enforcement
c) Demilitarized zone
d) Honeypot

A security researcher discovered a software vulnerability and notified the vendor to give them time to patch the vulnerability. What type of vulnerability is this?

a) Vulnerability assessment
b) Zero-day
c) Zero trust
d) Legacy systems

Which security concept is based on the idea that perimeter security is unlikely to be completely robust?

a) Separation of duties
b) Zero trust
c) Role-based access
d) Least privilege

The security network administrator of a company wants to ensure only authorized hosts are connecting to the network. Which options would an administrator utilize on routers and switches to provide port-based authentication for network access to devices? (Select all that apply.)

a) Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC)
b) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
c) Media Access Control (MAC) limiting and filtering.
d) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.1X.

A security consulting firm has been granted access to an organization’s network to assess the network’s security posture for about two weeks. The security firm has recently suggested using active or intrusive measures that can confirm any of the network’s assessed weaknesses. What type of action is the security firm asking the organization to authorize?

a) Vulnerability assessment

b) Posture assessment

c) Penetration testing

d) Threat assessment

What is the difference between an exploit and a vulnerability?

a) A vulnerability is a security weakness; an exploit is a means of utilizing a vulnerability.
b) A vulnerability is the potential for someone to breach security; an exploit is an external attacker.
c) A vulnerability is the potential for someone to breach security; an exploit is the likelihood of a threat exercising a vulnerability.
d) A vulnerability is a security weakness; an exploit is the internal threat of the company.

A security analyst is using a method to aggregate logs from multiple sources. This tool can provide a long-term retention function and be used to demonstrate regulatory compliance. What is this method called?

a) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
b) Privileged Access Management (PAM)
c) Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
d) Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

Which protocol would a switch authenticating via 802.1x mechanisms use?

a) NAC
b) EAPoW
c) EAPoL
d) EAP-TLS

What kind of tool can a network administrator run to measure the network statistics of a building's network equipment?

a) NetFlow
b) Traffic
c) Audit
d) Baseline

A sysadmin is running into the issue that traffic is getting dropped by the network equipment. After researching the issue, the sysadmin found that the individual packets were too small. What should the sysadmin configure to remove?

a) Baseline
b) Giants
c) Runts
d) Bandwidth

A sysadmin is looking to monitor the network devices by pulling data off of them remotely. What kind of network equipment functionality can the sysadmin use to accomplish this?

a) SNMP trap
b) Giant
c) Baseline
d) Runt

What do emergency, critical, and informational lines in a syslog refer to? (Select all that apply.)

a) Link states
b) Severity Levels
c) Logging Levels
d) Encapsulation errors.

A sysadmin is investigating an issue on a switch after receiving reports that connecting to any network resource, local or on the web, is much slower than normal. What kind of log should the sysadmin investigate to determine what may be causing the issue?

a) Security
b) Audit
c) Baseline
d) Traffic

A network operations engineer is investigating alerts that the data center keeps switching to battery backup. What environmental factor should the engineer investigate?

a) Flooding
b) Electrical
c) Temperature
d) Humidity

A sysadmin improved the bandwidth for the office, improving the quality of phone calls. What did the sysadmin improve?

a) Severity levels
b) Jitter
c) Logging levels
d) Speed/Duplex Settings

A sysadmin is investigating an issue between two geographically distant offices. Users at these locations report that accessing the shared drive at the corporate office is taking too long, even though all three locations have gigabit-speed internet. What indicator could help direct the sysadmin to the issue?

a) Processor
b) Latency
c) Memory
d) Jitter

A sysadmin was monitoring the logs of the network equipment in the corporate office and noticed there were a lot of packet collisions. After digging around the individual network boxes, the sysadmin found that there was a misconfigured switch. What setting most likely contributed to packet collisions?

a) Bandwidth

b) Memory

c) Speed/Duplex

d) Packet count

A sysadmin is trying to understand what is causing the company's virtual private network connections to fail. What kind of log would help the sysadmin track down the issue?

a) Syslog
b) Audit
c) Trap
d) Security

What describes the calculation of a checksum based on the contents of a frame used to detect errors?

a) CRC
b) SNMP
c) MOU
d) CPU

A sysadmin is researching a connectivity issue. The sysadmin sees the physical link listed as up, but the line protocol listed as down. What may be causing the issue that the sysadmin should investigate?

a) Encapsulation errors
b) Link states
c) Bandwidth
d) Jitter

A sysadmin noticed that there were changes to the hardware firewall not properly documented. The sysadmin does not know who made the change. What type of log should the sysadmin investigate that may shed light on who made the change in the firewall?

a) Traffic
b) Baseline
c) Audit
d) Trap

Which of the following security options would require the use of a smart badge to gain access to a rack enclosure full of rack-mounted servers and storage appliances?

a) CCTV
b) Smart locks
c) Locking cabinets
d) IDS

Which device transfers data over voice-grade telephone lines?

a) Edge router
b) DSL modem
c) Hub
d) Cable modem

A network administrator needs to provide remote workers access to internal messaging servers but cannot do internal service at the perimeter network. What can the network administrator deploy to listen for client requests from the Internet and create the appropriate request to the internal messaging server?

a) Intrusion prevention system
b) Voice gateway
c) Reverse proxy
d) Forward web proxy

An engineer configures a wireless distribution system (WDS) in bridged mode. As a result, which of the statements are true regarding access point functionality?

a) In bridged mode, access point functionality does not centralize wireless management.
b) Access point functionality only assigns distribution systems to a single access point.
c) Access point functionality works in repeater mode only.
d) In bridged mode, access point functionality does not support wireless clients.

A company updates an Internet use policy for employees to follow. In addition, a server engineer deploys a forward web proxy server onto the network to safeguard and enhance Internet web browsing. What functional features is this particular proxy server setup providing for employees? (Select all that apply.)

a) Traffic filtering
b) Load balancing
c) Caching engine
d) Access Control List (ACL)

A company implements a new Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone system with networked VoIP endpoints at some office desks as a pilot program. The other employees will still be working with analog phone services. How would a network administrator connect this new VoIP system with the existing analog phone system?

a) Cable modem
b) Voice gateway
c) Legacy PBX
d) VoIP PBX

A typical private network may have a router separating the internal network from the public network (Internet). The router may have a single IP interface to the public network but multiple interfaces connected to multiple internal subnets. How would a network administrator describe these different internal subnets?

a) Each subnet has a single trunk uplink.
b) Each subnet is a collision domain.
c) Each subnet is a broadcast domain.
d) Each subnet has a DSL modem.

Which of the following systems provide an active response to network threats that match signature patterns?

a) IDS
b) SCADA
c) VPN headend
d) IPS

Which of the following works directly with programmable logical controllers (PLCs) in an industrial complex?

a) Smart speakers

b) Smart refrigerators

c) Wireless printers

d) SCADA

A systems administrator deploys a proxy server for an organization. The administrator chooses to use a transparent approach to the configuration. Considering how the systems administrator deploys the proxy server, what does this configuration type utilize?

a) Mapping of IP to MAC addresses
b) Content filtering
c) Client port configuration
d) Inline network appliance

HVAC sensors are Internet of Things (IoT) devices that provide monitoring of what type of data? (Select all that apply.)

a) Temperature
b) Ventilation
c) Power
d) Humidity

Which of the following devices operates similarly to a multiport repeater?

a) Edge router
b) Cable modem
c) Bridge
d) Hub

A company uses multiple internet providers to maintain a reliable network. The wide area network (WAN) interfaces on a firewall handle the traffic bandwidth with policies. Considering the approach to Internet access, what does this company utilize?

a) Load balancer
b) Content filter
c) VPN headend
d) Proxy server

Office desktop computers and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phones will most likely connect to this network device to communicate with other systems over the Local Area Network (LAN).

a) Access point
b) Wireless LAN controller
c) Layer 3 switch
d) SCADA system

An administrator connected both a router and a gateway that had dissimilar media types. What kind of issue does this solution remedy?

a) Short issue
b) Shielded cable issue
c) Duplexing issue
d) Transceiver issue

An administrator suspects there is too much jitter on a network's backbone. What method can the administrator use to identify which device is experiencing issues?

a) Light meter
b) Spectrum analyzer
c) LED status indicators
d) Optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR)

c) LED status indicators

-LED status indicators on a network interface card (NIC) or a switch/router port indicate the status