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2023-2024 ISSA Certification Final Exam with Answers (200 Solved Questions)

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    ISSA CERTIFICATION EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS / ISSA FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023- 2024 1. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program? a. Trainer b. Client c. Nutritionist d. Physician 2. Which of the following is a key strategy for nutrition coaching? a. Identifying and eliminating behavior goals b. Identifying and eliminating time constraints c. Identifying and eliminating limiting factors d. Identifying and eliminating outcome goals 3. Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart? a. Systolic pressure b. Heart rate c. Diastolic pressure d. Pulse 4. Utilizing the FITT principle, how many times per week should a beginner client workout? a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5 5. Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Muscle spindle c. Muscle fiber d. Sarcomere

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    ISSA CERTIFICATION EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS / ISSA FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023- 2024 6. What type of contraction is involved in controlling and stopping a movement? a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Agonist d. Concentric 7. Which of the following populations are environmental considerations such as pollen, allergies, and extreme temperatures key for? a. Youth b. Asthma c. Arthritis d. Hypertension 8. The "hunchback", or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation? a. Kyphosis b. Lordosis c. Forward head d. Swayback 9. What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise? a. Crunches b. Straight arm pulldown c. Pushups d. Cable crossover 10. Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint? a. Knee b. Ankle c. Thumb d. Atlanto-axial

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 11. What are the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables per day? a. 11-15 servings per day b. 3-4 servings per day c. 1-2 servings per day d. 5-10 servings per day 12. Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff? a. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis b. Supraspinatus, teres major, teres pectoralis minor, subscapularis c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, levator scapulae 13. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? a. Vitamin H b. Reservatrol c. Beta Alanine d. Vitamin C 14. When the spine develops an S- or C-shaped curve, this imbalance is referred to as which of the following? a. Lordosis b. Flatback c. Scoliosis d. Kyphosis 15. Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production? a. Fats b. Leucine c. Carbohydrates d. Valine

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 16. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regardsto intensity? a. Progressively increase over a period to time b. Progressively decrease over a period of time c. Remain the same d. Acute decrease over a period of time 17. Approximately how many calories are in 1 gram of fat? a. 6 b. 7 c. 5 d. 9 18. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers? a. Type IIx b. Type II c. Fast twitch d. Slow twitch 19. Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and which of the following? a. B b. C c. K d. H 20. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do? a. Refer to a dietician b. Offer a templated meal plan c. Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan d. Give a breakdown of macronutrients

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 21. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle? a. Gluteus b. Soleus c. Hamstrings d. Quadriceps 22. Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively? a. Eccentric b. Ballistic c. Concentric d. Isometric 23. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates? a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 24. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest? a. Increase k/cal by 250 b. Decrease k/cal by 100 c. Increase k/cal 100 d. Decrease k/cal by 250 25. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining? a. Increase in body weight b. Decreased number of infections c. Lowered heart rate during exercise d. Decrease in performance

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 26. Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Glycogen 27. A client performs 8 repetitions of seated leg press at 320 lbs., what is their estimated 1RM? a. 420 lbs. b. 400 lbs. c. 460 lbs. d. 480 lbs. 28. In a client's training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following? a. Microcycle b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Peak Cycle 29. What plane of motion do lateral raises take place in? a. Rotational b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Sagittal 30. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage? a. Heimlich maneuver b. Valsalva maneuver c. Mueller maneuver d. Diaphragmatic maneuver

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 31. Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal? a. Lose 10 pounds b. Increase back squat by 10 pounds c. Workout 3 days a week d. Decrease mile run time by 1 minute 32. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client? a. 1 thumb b. 2 thumbs c. 1 fist d. 2 fists 33. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe? a. Individual differences b. Progressive overload c. SAID d. GAS 34. What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn't immediately meet the demands? a. Oxygen deficit b. Oxygen debt c. Aerobic fitness d. Anaerobic fitness 35. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from: a. 100 b. 180 c. 220 d. 200

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 36. What resistance training method divides one set into several mini-sets with rest? a. Eccentrics b. Rest-pause c. Pre-exhaustion d. Post-exhaustion 37. If a client is suffering from insulin shock, what should a trainer give them? a. Sugar b. Fiber c. Caffeine d. Water 38. Which of the following does HIT stand for? a. Healthy integrated training b. High integrated technique c. High intensity training d. Hyper-integrated technique 39. When the spine curves inward at the low back, this is referred to as which of the following? a. Kyphosis b. Lordosis c. Flatback d. Scoliosis 40. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following? a. Macrocycle b. Mesocycle c. Microcycle d. Foundational

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 41. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs? a. Oxygen deficit b. Oxygen debt c. Aerobic fitness d. Anaerobic fitness 42. Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition? a. Stroke b. Heart attack c. Diabetes d. Pancreatitis 43. What percentage of your total body weight is made up of water? a. 70 b. 60 c. 35 d. 25 44. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Type II d. Type I 45. "Keep shoulder blades down and together throughout the entire movement" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements? a. Dumbbell incline bench press b. Chin-up c. Hanging leg raise d. Squat

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 46. Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: shock, compensation, and exhaustion? a. Individual differences b. GAS c. Overload d. Specificity 47. Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss? a. Minimally processed, slow digesting b. Processed quickly, fast acting c. A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates d. Moderately processed, absorbed quickly 48. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following? a. Salt b. Fiber c. Water d. Fruit 49. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength? a. Bench press b. Push-up c. Zipper stretch d. Bicep curl 50. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following? a. Anaerobic exercise b. Aerobic exercise c. Energy metabolism d. ATP/CP pathway

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 51. Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition? a. A cheat meal once a week b. Meal prep routine c. Adequate sleep and recovery d. Repetitive weekends full of not following the plan 52. "Keep your heels on the ground" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements? a. Dumbbell incline bench press b. Squat c. Lunge d. Bench press 53. Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client? a. Liability waiver b. Comprehensive client form c. PAR-Q d. Recovery assessment 54. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following? a. Actin and tropomyosin b. Tropin and myosin c. Tropoactin and myosin d. Actin and myosin 55. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass? a. Body fat calculation b. Girth measurements c. Scale weight d. Photographs

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 56. How often should information be collected when working with a client? a. Only on the initial assessment b. Once a month c. Every time a trainer meets with them d. Only at reassessments 57. What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients? a. Hypertrophy adaptations b. Neural adaptations c. Environmental adaptations d. Anaerobic adaptations 58. What bone runs parallel to the fibula? a. Radius b. Femur c. Tibia d. Ulna 59. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat? a. Left b. Front c. Right d. Back 60. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise? a. Triceps b. Deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gastrocnemius

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 61. What type of grip denotes the palm facing upwards towards the ceiling? a. Pronated b. Neutral c. Supinated d. Mixed 62. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction? a. Spine b. Shoulder c. Knee d. Ankle 63. Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury? a. Type I b. Fast twitch c. "Couch potato" fibers d. Type II 64. Approximately how many calories are in one pound of body fat? a. 2500 b. 4600 c. 3500 d. 5600 65. Which of the following is required for weight loss and can also result in loss of lean body mass? a. Positive energy balance b. Excess calories c. Negative energy balance d. Total energy expenditure

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    Exam ISSA Final Exam ALL ANSWERS 100% 66. What exercise should be performed FIRST? a. Broad jump b. Back squat c. Split squat d. Power clean 67. When the scapular adductors are weak, which postural deviation can occur? a. Swayback b. Kyphosis c. Forward head d. Lordosis 68. Cycling your training to help account for shock, compensation, and exhaustion is an important part of periodization and refers to which principle? a. Henneman's principle b. GAS principle c. Principle of size recruitment d. SAID principle 69. How is strength usually measured? a. 12-minute run walk assessment b. Push-up test c. Zipper stretch test d. 1RM test 70. A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following? a. Superset training principle b. Set-system training principle c. Split system training principle d. Staggered sets training principle

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