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2024-2025 Barkley Pharmacology Real Exam With Answers (100 Solved Questions)

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    p re and post test Barkley REAL EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2024 - 2025 LATEST//ALREADY GRADED A+

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    You are working in the emergency department when a patient arrives after an overdose of diazepam pills. She has slightly slurred speech and states, "I lost count of how many pills I took." What is the first step you would take in care of this patient? A Naloxone intravenously B Charcoal followed by ipecac 30 centimeters orally Item C Flumazenil intravenously

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    D Respiratory and blood pressure support D. The first step in treating benzodiazepine overdose is to monitor blood pressure and give respiratory support. Although flumazenil intravenously (IV) is recommended for treating benzodiazepine overdoses, it is not the first - line treatmen t because risks (e.g., withdrawal, seizures) may outweigh benefits. Charcoal and ipecac, no matter which agent comes first, are not recommended as first - line measures for gastrointestinal decontamination management in benzodiazepine overdose, as this may l ead to aspiration in this patient and should occur only

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    after respiratory support has been established. Intravenous naloxone is recommended for narcotic toxicity, such as the kind caused by codeine, heroin, morphine, or opium. A 54 - year - old former professi onal athlete is being screened for hypertension, a condition which runs in his family. Which of the following findings is not consistent with a diagnosis of hypertension? A. Epistaxis B. A suboccipital headache C. Blurred vision D. An S3 heart sound

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    D. An S4 heart sound, not an S3 heart sound, is a finding of hypertension. A suboccipital headache, blurred vision, and epistaxis are all findings indicative of hypertension. A deficiency of which of the following blood components causes pernicious anemia? A. C lotting factor III B. Factor VII C. Prothrombin d. Intrinsic factor A deficiency of intrinsic factor interferes with the body's ability to absorb vitamin B12, thereby causing pernicious anemia. Prothrombin and clotting factor II are

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    both names for the same vitamin K - dependent proenzyme which assists in blood coagulation cascade. A lack of sufficient prothrombin causes hypoprothrombinemia, not pernicious anemia. Hemophilia, not pernicious anemia, is caused by a genetic condition expressed by the deficiency o f factor VII. In addition to infection by Helicobacter pylori, peptic ulcers may also arise from regular use of certain medications and other conditions. In which of the following populations of patients is prophylactic therapy for gastric ulcers not indic ated?

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    A. Patients taking tricyclic antidepressants long term B. Patients taking moderate nonsteroidal anti - inflammatory drugs long term C. Patients taking glucocorticoids long term D. Patients taking aspirin long term The use of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) has not been reported to induce ulcers. TCAs may actually be used as treatment for ulcers in certain patients. Glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, and aspirin can

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    induce ulcers in patients who take these medications long te rm. Which of the following overdoses would the nurse practitioner expect to present with more sedative signs and symptoms as opposed to an elevated tachycardic presentation? A.Crack B.Cocaine C.Amphetamines D.Opioids D. Of the choices, opioids are the only narcotic that would present with sedative signs. Amphetamines, cocaine, and crack are all stimulants, and overdoses of these substances may

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    present with increased blood pressure, numbness, or a seizure. Which of the following is not a major cause of death of adults in their 30s? A. Congenital malformations B. Cancer C. Suicide D. Unintentional injuries A. Congenital malformations are a leading cause of death of children aged 1 - 9 years, but not adults in their 30s. The leading causes of death for adults age d 25 - 44 years are unintentional injuries, cancer, suicide, heart disease, and homicide.

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    When should a female patient first receive a cytology with HPV co - test? A. At age 25 years B. At age 29 years C. At age 30 years D. At age 21 years C. According to mul tiple health care bodies, women should first receive a cytology with HPV co - test at age 30 years; these tests should be repeated every 5 years until 65 years of age. A conventional or liquid - based cytology should be administered every 3 21 to 29 years of a ge. Annual chlamydia screenings are recommended for

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    sexually years from active women younger than 25 years of age and may be administered alongside cervical cancer screenings. A patient recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is started on a four - drug re gimen, consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. If the patient's TB isolate proves to be fully susceptible, which drug should be discontinued first? A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Isoniazid D. Rifampin

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    A. Ethambutol should be disc ontinued early into treatment of tuberculosis (TB) if the patient's TB isolate turns out to be susceptible to drug therapy. Pyrazinamide is traditionally discontinued after 2 months of treatment, whereas rifampin and isoniazid are used throughout all 6 mon ths of standard therapy. Which of these statements is true regarding chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. The condition is most common in people aged 40 years and older. B. The condition is the most common leukemia in adults.

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    C. The condition has a median survival rate of 10 years. D. The condition is associated with Reed - Sternberg cells. A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia, or chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), is most common in people aged 40 years and older. CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome whereas Reed - Sternberg cells are associated with Hodgkin's disease. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, the most common form of leukemia in adults in Western countries, has a median survival rate of 10 years in its earliest stages; al though CML once had a median survival rate of 4 years, recent innovations in drug treatment

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    have resulted in a greater rate of survival, with a median survival rate of at least 5 years. A patient with pyelonephritis displays the following hemodynamic profi le: increased cardiac output, decreased central venous pressure, decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and decreased systemic vascular resistance. Which of these agents is least likely to see use in treatment of the patient? A. Dopamine B. Dobutami ne Norepinephrine D. Nitroglycerin

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    D. Septic shock can stem from active infection (e.g., pyelonephritis) and present with increased cardiac output, decreased central venous pressure (CVP), decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and decreased systemi c vascular resistance; as patients in septic shock are usually in a state of vasodilation, vasodilators such as nitroglycerin are not likely to see use. Norepinephrine is the standard first - line agent for promotion of vasoconstriction in septic shock. Dopa mine may also see use in septic shock but is known to cause arrhythmias; as such, this agent typically sees use when there is a low risk of tachyarrhythmias. Dobutamine is an

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