2024-2025 Barkley Pharmacology Real Exam With Answers (100 Solved Questions)

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pre and post testBarkley REAL EXAM100 QUESTIONS ANDCORRECT ANSWERS2024-2025LATEST//ALREADYGRADED A+

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You are working in the emergencydepartment when a patient arrives afteran overdose of diazepam pills. She hasslightly slurredspeech and states, "I lostcount of how many pills I took." What isthe first step you would take in care ofthis patient?A Naloxone intravenouslyB Charcoal followed by ipecac 30centimeters orally ItemC Flumazenil intravenously

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D Respiratory and bloodpressuresupportD. The first step in treatingbenzodiazepine overdose is to monitorblood pressure and give respiratorysupport. Although flumazenilintravenously (IV) is recommended fortreating benzodiazepine overdoses, it isnot the first-line treatment because risks(e.g., withdrawal, seizures) mayoutweigh benefits. Charcoal and ipecac,no matter which agent comes first, arenot recommended as first-line measuresfor gastrointestinal decontaminationmanagement in benzodiazepineoverdose, as this may lead to aspirationin this patient and should occur only

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after respiratory support has beenestablished. Intravenous naloxone isrecommended for narcotic toxicity, suchas the kind caused by codeine, heroin,morphine, or opium.A 54-year-old former professionalathlete is being screened forhypertension, a condition which runs inhis family. Which of the followingfindings is not consistent with adiagnosis of hypertension?A. EpistaxisB. A suboccipital headacheC. Blurred visionD. An S3 heart sound

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D. AnS4 heart sound, not an S3 heartsound, is a finding of hypertension. Asuboccipital headache, blurred vision,and epistaxis are all findings indicative ofhypertension.A deficiency of which of the followingblood components causes perniciousanemia?A. Clotting factor IIIB. Factor VIIC. Prothrombind. Intrinsic factorA deficiency of intrinsic factor interfereswith the body's ability to absorb vitaminB12, thereby causing pernicious anemia.Prothrombin and clotting factor II are

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both names for the samevitamin K-dependent proenzyme which assists inblood coagulation cascade. A lack ofsufficient prothrombin causeshypoprothrombinemia, not perniciousanemia. Hemophilia, not perniciousanemia, is caused by a genetic conditionexpressed by the deficiency of factor VII.In addition to infection by Helicobacterpylori, peptic ulcers may also arise fromregular use of certain medications andother conditions. In which of thefollowing populations of patients isprophylactic therapy for gastric ulcersnot indicated?

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A. Patients taking tricyclicantidepressants long termB. Patients taking moderate nonsteroidalanti-inflammatory drugs long termC. Patients taking glucocorticoids longtermD. Patients taking aspirin long termThe use of tricyclic antidepressants(TCAs) has not been reported to induceulcers. TCAs may actually be used astreatment for ulcers in certain patients.Glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, and aspirin can

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induce ulcers in patients who take thesemedications long term.Which of the following overdoses wouldthe nurse practitioner expect to presentwith more sedative signs and symptomsas opposed to an elevated tachycardicpresentation?A.CrackB.CocaineC.AmphetaminesD.OpioidsD. Of the choices, opioids are the onlynarcotic that would present withsedative signs. Amphetamines, cocaine,and crack are all stimulants, andoverdoses of these substances may

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present with increased blood pressure,numbness, or a seizure.Which of the following is not a majorcause of deathof adults in their 30s?A. Congenital malformationsB. CancerC. SuicideD. Unintentional injuriesA. Congenital malformations are aleading cause of death of children aged1-9 years, but not adults in their 30s. Theleading causes of death for adults aged25-44 years are unintentional injuries,cancer, suicide, heart disease, andhomicide.

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When should a female patient firstreceive a cytology with HPV co-test?A. At age 25 yearsB. At age 29 yearsC. At age 30 yearsD. At age 21 yearsC. According to multiple health carebodies, women should first receive acytology with HPV co-test at age 30years; these tests should be repeatedevery 5 years until 65 years of age. Aconventional or liquid-based cytologyshould be administered every 3 21 to 29years of age. Annual chlamydiascreenings are recommended for

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sexually years from active womenyounger than 25 years of age and maybe administered alongside cervicalcancer screenings.A patient recently diagnosed withtuberculosis (TB) is started on a four-drug regimen, consisting of isoniazid,rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.If the patient's TB isolate proves to befully susceptible, which drug should bediscontinued first?A. EthambutolB. PyrazinamideC. IsoniazidD. Rifampin

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A. Ethambutol should be discontinuedearly into treatment of tuberculosis (TB)if the patient's TB isolate turns out to besusceptible to drug therapy.Pyrazinamide is traditionallydiscontinued after 2 months oftreatment, whereas rifampin andisoniazid are used throughout all 6months of standard therapy.Which of these statements is trueregarding chronic myelogenousleukemia?A. The condition is most common inpeople aged 40 years and older.B. The condition is the most commonleukemia in adults.

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C. The condition has a median survivalrate of 10 years.D. The condition is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells.A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia, orchronic myeloid leukemia (CML), is mostcommon in people aged 40 years andolder. CML is associated withthePhiladelphia chromosome whereasReed-Sternberg cells are associated withHodgkin's disease. Chronic lymphocyticleukemia, the most common form ofleukemia in adults in Western countries,has a median survival rate of 10 years inits earliest stages; although CML oncehad a median survival rate of 4 years,recent innovations in drug treatment

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have resulted in a greater rate ofsurvival, with a median survival rate of atleast 5 years.A patient with pyelonephritis displaysthe following hemodynamic profile:increased cardiac output, decreasedcentral venous pressure, decreasedpulmonary capillary wedge pressure,and decreased systemic vascularresistance. Which of these agents is leastlikely to see use in treatment of thepatient?A. DopamineB. DobutamineNorepinephrineD. Nitroglycerin

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D. Septic shock can stem from activeinfection (e.g., pyelonephritis) andpresent with increased cardiac output,decreased central venous pressure(CVP), decreased pulmonary capillarywedge pressure, and decreased systemicvascular resistance; as patients in septicshock are usually in a state ofvasodilation, vasodilators such asnitroglycerin are not likely to see use.Norepinephrine is the standard first-lineagent for promotion of vasoconstrictionin septic shock. Dopamine may also seeuse in septic shock but is known to causearrhythmias; as such, this agent typicallysees use when there is a low risk oftachyarrhythmias. Dobutamine is an

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