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2023 TECC Medical Care Practice Exam With Answers (50 Solved Questions)

2023 TECC Medical Care Practice Exam With Answers is the key to mastering past exam topics effectively.

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    TECC Test Exam With 100% Correct Answers 2023 1. How does a nasopharyngeal airway maintain a patent airway? A. Displaces the jaw forward B. Keeps the tongue in an anterior position C. Ensures complete dilation of the nares D. Blocks salivary and secretion glands - Correct Answer - B. 2) A 28 year old officer was struck in the head while entering a hostile environment. Upon assessment, you note that he has an irregular respiratory pattern, elevated blood pressure, and a decreased pulse. At what leve l should you maintain this patient's capnography? A) 45 - 50 mmHg B) 36 - 40 mmHg C) Less than 30 mmHg D) 30 - 35 mmHg - Correct Answer - B. 3) An unconscious casualty has suffered multiple injuries as a result of an IED blast. Vital signs P 132, R 22. During the Indirect Threat Care phase, what should you do to ensure the patient has a patent airway? A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway B) Place the patient in the recovery position C) Perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy D) Perform endotracheal intubation - Correct Answer - B. 4) An adult patient only responds to painful stimuli. She is bleeding from multiple entrance and exit wounds. She has a weak moan and is writhing in pain. Several attempts at peripheral IV access was unsuccessful. What should you do? A) Administ er morphine per oral B) Attempt IV access for a 3rd time C) Establish external jugular D) Establish I/0 access - Correct Answer - D. 5) A 41 year old male has suffered a gunshot wound to the right shoulder. The bleeding is controlled but he begins to present with difficulty breathing and decreased chest rise on the right side. What should you suspect? A) Airway obstruction B) Hemothorax C. Tension pneumothorax D) Hypoperfusion - Correct Answer - B.

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    6) Applying direct pressure to a wound is an appropria te intervention for which of the following casualties? A) Conscious victim with heavy bleeding during Indirect Threat Care B) Unconscious victim with no visible bleeding during Indirect Threat Care C) Conscious victim with trickling bleeding during Direct Threat Care D) Conscious victim with heavy bleeding during Direct Threat Care - Correct Answer - A. 7) A 30 ear old female has partial - thickness burns on 60% of her total body surface area. Vital signs are BP 76/50, P 140, R 26. When should fluid resuscita tion be initiated? A) As soon as venous access is obtained B) Only en route to the hospital C) After analgesia administration D) When the patient becomes unconscious - Correct Answer - A. 8) What is the most immediate threat to a patient with burns coverin g greater than 20% total body surface area? A) Infection B) Massive fluid shifts C) Hypothermia D) Compartment syndrome - Correct Answer - C. 9) After a mass casualty incident, you are re - triaging patients. A 35 year old male has a gunshot wound to the upper right chest. He was treated with a non - vented occlusive dressing. Now he is anxious and complains of difficulty breathing. What should you do? A) Place in position of comfort B) Apply a second occlusive dressing C) Manually burp the occlusive dressin g D) Perform needle decompression - Correct Answer - C. 10) A 29 year old bystander has a gunshot wound to the upper right leg. A tourniquet was applied prior to arrival at the treatment area. He complains of severe leg pain. Vital signs are BP 110/50, P 10 0, R 24. What should you do? A) Administer 2 acetaminophen 650 mg bilayer caplets PO and Meloxicam 15 mg PO B) Reassess tourniquet effectiveness and administer 50 mg of ketamine IM C) Continue to monitor casualty and move on to the next patient D) Initiate an IV of normal saline and administer a 500 mL fluid bolus - Correct Answer - C 11) A 35 year old male has suffered partial thickness burns to his chest, arms, and face. He complains of severe pain. He speaks in 2 - 3 word sentences with a raspy voice. His f acial hair is singed. Vital signs are BP 150/80, P 130, R 32 and shallow. What should you do?

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    A) Establish IV access and begin fluid resuscitation B) Manually stabilize the spine C) Administer oxygen by non - rebreather mask D) Obtain the patient's room air SpO2 - Correct Answer - A. 12) Which of the following is true of IV fluid administration? A) Initial fluid bolus begins with 1 liter B) Administered to all casualties with traumatic injuries C) Preferred method over PO fluids D) Titrated to maintain a systolic BP of 80 - 90 mmH - Correct Answer - D. 13) A 24 year old male police officer has a gunshot wound to right upper thigh with profuse bleeding. After application of a tourniquet, the bleeding is controlled. His skin is clammy and he has weak radial pul ses with a respiratory rate of 28. He complains of severe pain from the tourniquet. What should you administer to manage the pain? A) Ketamine 20 mg IV B) Oral transmucosal fentanyl lozenge at 800 mcg C) Morphine 10 mg IM D) Fentanyl 50 mg IV - Correct Answer - A. 14) A 26 ear old female has multiple puncture wounds to the thoracic cavity. Vital signs are BP 160/100, P 100 and regular, R 30 short and shallow, Sp02 94% on room air. What should you do? A) Establish IV/O access and deliver 1000 mL of Fresh Whole Blood B) Give her a paper bag to help regulate her breathing back to normal C) Apply vented chest seal to appropriate areas D) Apply high - flow oxygen with a non - rebreather mask - Correct Answer - C. 15) A 34 year old police officer was shot in the ank le and a tourniquet was applied. He is unresponsive after several doses of IM morphine. Vital signs are BP 118/68, P 104, R 8 and shallow. What should you administer? A) Diphenirydramthe B) Epinephrine C) Naloxone D) Flumazenil - Correct Answer - C. 16) Du ring Indirect Threat Care (ITC) and Warm Zone operations, when is it appropriate to downgrade or convert a tourniquet that was initially placed as high on the limb as possible over clothing? A) It is not appropriate to remove, downgrade, or convert a tour niquet once it has been applied B) There will be a delay of more than 2 hours in evacuation of the patient

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