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International Trauma Life Support For Emergency Care Providers, 8th Edition Test Bank

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A ________ injury occurs when a patient is struck by flying shrapnel from a blast. 1) A) primary B) quaternary C) tertiary D) secondary Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) All of the following are forms of protection to the occupant of a small - vehicle crash EXCEPT: 2) A) helmet usage. B) evasive maneuvering. C) lap belts. D) protective clothing. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) Injuries to the thorax below the ________ should increase suspicions of abdominal injury as well. 3) A) third intercostal space B) second intercostal space C) fourth intercostal space D) first intercostal space Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4) Rollover, forward deceleration of the rider from vehicle impact with a stationary object, and the rider falling off are common mechanisms of injury from what type of vehicle? 4) A) Snowmobile B) Motorcycle C) Watercraft D) All - terrain vehicle Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5) When does scene size - up begin? 5) A) Once you are dispatched B) During the first patient contact C) As you leave the ambulance D) After you arrive on scene Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    6) A car strikes a tree at 35 miles per hour. At that exact moment, how fast are the driver's organs traveling? 6) A) 0 miles/hour B) 35 miles/hour C) 50 miles/hour D) 70 miles/hour Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) Which of the following is NOT one of the patient collisions associated with an MVC? 7) A) Penetrating collision B) Machine collision C) Body collision D) Organ collision Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8) Which of the following mechanisms would be considered a penetration injury? 8) A) Rapid vertical deceleration B) Being struck with a baseball bat C) Rapid forward deceleration D) Fall upon a fixed object Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) Over three - fourths of all motorcycle deaths are due to what kind of injury? 9) A) Spine B) Thoracic C) Head D) Neck Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10) The "clothesline" or "hangman" injury is a common injury from riding: 10) A) snowmobiles. B) motorcycles. C) personal watercraft. D) all - terrain vehicles. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    11) Which of the following clues is NOT a consideration when determining the mechanism of injury from a vehicle crash? 11) A) Deformity of objects within the glove box B) Deformity of interior structures C) Deformity of the vehicle D) Deformity or injury patterns of the patient Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12) Oxygen, cervical collars, backboards and personal protective equipment are all considered ________ for trauma patients. 12) A) specialized care B) essential equipment C) universal necessities D) Standard Precautions Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) Windshield injuries occur MOST often with what type of vehicle collision? 13) A) Lateral collision B) Frontal collision C) Rear - end collision D) Rotational collision Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) Being thrown by a blast wave and impacting the ground is what type of blast injury? 14) A) Tertiary B) Primary C) Quaternary D) Secondary Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 15) Additional collisions with objects inside a vehicle that become missiles when the vehicle abruptly stops are an example of: 15) A) secondary collisions. B) rotational collisions. C) rear - impact collisions. D) primary collisions. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    16) In what direction do the majority of tractor overturns occur? 16) A) To the rear B) To the side C) To the back D) To the front Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 17) The procedure used to prevent contamination by a patient's body fluids is termed: 17) A) Standard Precautions. B) essential equipment. C) O.P.I.M. D) ITLS primary survey. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) Which of the following has the largest effect regarding energy transfer into a patient? 18) A) Mass B) Weight C) Velocity D) Height Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) The type of collision that is MOST likely to result in a cervical hyperextension injury is a: 19) A) frontal collision. B) rotational collision. C) lateral collision. D) rear - end collision. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 20) When one part of a vehicle stops and the rest of the vehicle remains in motion, what type of mechanism is it? 20) A) Rotational B) Lateral C) Rollover D) Frontal Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 21) Which of the following is NOT a consideration when assessing for injuries due to a fall? 21) A) Distance of the fall B) Anatomical area struck C) Surface struck D) Acceleration forces Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    22) What is the MOST common mechanism of injury from a tractor accident? 22) A) Ejection B) Overturns C) Burns D) Falls Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) The internal diameter of a muzzle on a gun is called what? 23) A) Rifling B) Yaw C) Caliber D) Tumbling Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 24) During a rollover accident, an ejected occupant is ________ times as likely to be killed. 24) A) five B) two C) four D) three Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 25) What is a major concern for a patient that was involved in a high - energy event? 25) A) Checking vital signs before airway B) The increased chance for serious injury C) Rapid transportation via helicopter D) Securing the scene from onlookers Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    Answer Key Testname: C1 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) B 6

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The concept that immediately addresses problems encountered and yet does not interrupt the assessment sequence and does not increase scene time is called: 1) A) delegating interventions. B) rapid survey. C) priority patients. D) load and go. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) The correct order for the first part of the ITLS secondary exam is: 2) A) LOC, airway, breathing, radial pulse, general impression. B) general impression, LOC, airway, breathing, radial pulse. C) radial pulse, breathing, airway, LOC, general impression. D) airway, breathing, radial pulse, general impression, LOC. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) The choice between performing a rapid trauma survey or a focused exam depends on: 3) A) initial assessment results. B) SAMPLE history. C) number of patients. D) weather conditions. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4) Which of the following is NOT a reason to interrupt the ITLS primary survey? 4) A) Scene danger B) Airway obstruction C) Respiratory arrest D) Cardiac arrest Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    5) When do you determine the need for extra resources? 5) A) During the focused exam B) During the rapid trauma survey C) During the initial assessment D) During the scene size - up Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6) The ITLS ongoing exam should be repeated every ________ minutes for critical patients and ________ minutes for stable patients. 6) A) 2; 5 B) 4; 10 C) 10; 15 D) 5; 15 Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) What does TIC abbreviate? 7) A) Tenderness, instability, crepitus B) Tearing, instability, contusions C) Tourniquet, insert airway, circulation D) Tenderness, IV fluid, compression Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8) If bleeding is not adequately controlled with pressure, what should be done immediately? 8) A) Apply a new gauze every 2 minutes. B) Squeeze down with a gloved hand. C) Apply a tourniquet. D) Insert two large - bore IVs. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) A comprehensive head - to - toe exam to find additional injuries possibly missed during the primary survey is the ITLS: 9) A) primary survey. B) focused exam. C) ongoing exam. D) secondary survey. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    10) An exam used when there is an isolated injury and that is limited to the area of injury is called a(n): 10) A) focused exam. B) secondary survey. C) primary survey. D) ongoing exam. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11) When you percuss the chest and hear hyperresonance, the patient may have a: 11) A) cardiac tamponade. B) pulmonary contusion. C) pneumothorax. D) hemothorax. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12) What does DCAP abbreviate? 12) A) Deformities, compressions, abrasions, penetrations B) Deformities, contusions, avulsions, punctures C) Depressions, contusions, abrasions, penetrations D) Deformities, contusions, abrasions, penetrations Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) Ideally, the ITLS primary survey should take less than: 13) A) 3 minutes. B) 4 minutes. C) 2 minutes. D) 5 minutes. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) All of the following are part of the ITLS ongoing exam EXCEPT: 14) A) check interventions. B) vital signs. C) recheck monitors. D) general impression. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    15) What type of maneuver should be used to open the airway of a suspected trauma patient? 15) A) Jaw thrust B) Hyperextension C) Head tilt D) Chin lift Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 16) Which of the following would be considered a normal end - tidal CO 2 ? 16) A) 35 B) 30 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 17) During the formation of the general impression of your trauma patient, what does the first "C" in C - A - B - C stand for? 17) A) Control bleeding B) Compression C) Circulation D) Care on scene Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) If a patient is responsive to your voice only, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from pain, the GCS is: 18) A) 7. B) 9. C) 11. D) 5. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) If you have to move a patient, but she shouldn't be logrolled, it is best to use a: 19) A) short backboard. B) scoop stretcher. C) long backboard. D) vacuum splint. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    20) An abbreviated exam to determine changes in a patient's condition is called the ITLS: 20) A) focused exam. B) primary survey. C) ongoing exam. D) secondary survey. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 21) The brief exam to find immediately life - threatening conditions is called the ITLS: 21) A) ongoing exam. B) secondary survey. C) focused exam. D) primary survey. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 22) Procedures such as splinting, insertion of IV lines, and bandaging should be performed: 22) A) just before the end of the focused exam. B) during the beginning of the ongoing exam. C) in a manner so as not to delay transport. D) as problems are detected in the primary survey. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) What is the normal range of ventilations for an adult? 23) A) 25 to 50 B) 6 to 10 C) 15 to 30 D) 10 to 20 Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 24) What does BLS abbreviate? 24) A) Breaks, lividity, swelling B) Burns, lacerations, stability C) Burns, lacerations, swelling D) Bones, loose joints, severe pain Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    25) If the initial assessment reveals altered mental status, abnormal breathing, or uncontrolled bleeding, this is termed a: 25) A) priority patient. B) sick patient. C) dangerous patient. D) high - risk patient. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6

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    Answer Key Testname: C2 1) A 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) A 7

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    Exam Name___________________________________ SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 1) This Chapter Does Not Contain Questions 1) Answer: Explanation: 1

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    Answer Key Testname: C3 1) 2

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) How do you determine minute volume? 1) A) Pulse times stroke volume B) Tidal volume times breathing rate C) Cardiac output times vascular resistance D) Breathing rate times pulse Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) Which of the following is considered a blind insertion airway device? 2) A) NPA B) LMA C) OPA D) SALT Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) What does the mnemonic MMAP represent? 3) A) Mandible/maxilla ratio, 331 measurement, atlanto - occipital junction, pathology B) Mallampati, 331 measurement, aspiration potential, pathology C) Mallampati, 331 mortality, atlanto - occipital junction, pathology D) Mallampati, 331 measurement, atlanto - occipital junction, pathology Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4) Respiration is defined as: 4) A) the movement of air or gas in and out of the lung passages. B) the process of exhalation and inhalation through the pharynx. C) the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveoli. D) the contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5) All of the following are potential airway obstructions EXCEPT the: 5) A) hyoid bone. B) tongue. C) teeth. D) epiglottis. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    6) What are two of the greatest threats to a patent airway? 6) A) Vomiting and aspiration B) Laryngospasm and epiglottis relaxation C) Tracheal stenosis and burns D) Mucous and oropharyngeal spasm Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) Which piece of equipment is considered the gold standard of airway care in patients who cannot protect their airways or in those needing assistance with breathing? 7) A) Endotracheal tube B) Tracheostomy tube C) Combitube® D) King LTD Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8) Which of the following can be used to reduce the risk of gastric regurgitation during the process of intubation? 8) A) Transillumination B) Direct visualization C) Sellick maneuver D) Faster ventilation Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) Where does the airway end? 9) A) Glottic opening B) Tertiary bronchioles C) Alveolocapillary membrane D) Mainstem bronchi Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 10) The potential space between the internal chest wall and the lung surface is known as a/the: 10) A) glottic passage. B) pleural space. C) sternal margin. D) pneumothorax. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    11) Which type of ventilation is the MOST reliable and effective method when following Standard Precautions? 11) A) Bag - valve mask device B) FROPVD C) Mouth - to - mask D) Mouth - to - mouth Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12) What is rapidly becoming the gold standard for monitoring proper endotracheal tube placement? 12) A) Observing cm mark at the teeth B) Invasive arterial lines C) Waveform capnography D) Pulse oximetry Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) A simple face mask running at 10 to 12 liters per minute will supply which of the following oxygen concentrations? 13) A) 40 to 50 percent B) 60 to 90 percent C) 80 to 100 percent D) 50 to 65 percent Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) Which of the following is an abnormal end - tidal CO 2 reading? 14) A) 45 B) 35 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 15) What mechanism causes the lungs to expand and air to rush into the airway? 15) A) Expansion of the chest wall and upward movement of the diaphragm B) Relaxation of the chest wall and upward movement of the diaphragm C) Expansion of the chest wall and downward movement of the diaphragm D) Relaxation of the chest wall and downward movement of the diaphragm Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    16) Abnormally high levels of this gas in the bloodstream can potentially lead to increased intracranial pressure. 16) A) Carbon dioxide B) Oxygen C) Argon D) Nitrogen Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 17) Manipulating the thyroid cartilage and helping to bring vocal cords into view during intubation is called: 17) A) esophageal closure. B) Sellick pressure. C) external laryngeal manipulation. D) cricoid shift. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) Which of the following volumes is within the normal range for tidal volume? 18) A) 1000 ml B) 700 ml C) 500 ml D) 300 ml Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) The ability of the lungs and chest wall to expand and therefore ventilate a patient is known as: 19) A) respiration. B) expansion. C) ventilation. D) compliance. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 20) Predicting a difficult bag - valve mask seal uses which of the following mnemonics? 20) A) MMAP B) SALT C) BOOTS D) FROPVD Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    21) Which of the following will provide 100 percent oxygen at a flow rate of 40 liters per minute? 21) A) Flow - restricted oxygen - powered ventilation device B) Transtracheal jet insufflator device C) Bag - valve mask device D) Demand - valve oxygen - powered ventilation device Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 22) A patient suffering from head trauma may have a hypoxic brain and: 22) A) a low level of carbon dioxide. B) a high level of carbon monoxide. C) a high level of carbon dioxide. D) a low level of carbon monoxide. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) The use of paralytic agents to quickly facilitate tube placement and to minimize the risk of aspiration is termed: 23) A) rapid sequence intubation. B) rapid anesthetic airway protection. C) rapid medication induction. D) rapid endotracheal tube placement. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 24) What is the mnemonic for the procedure of inserting a special cannula through the cricothyroid membrane to provide ventilation and oxygenation when the airway cannot be maintained because of obstruction? 24) A) BIAD B) TLJV C) FROPVD D) RSI ET Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 25) What is the best way to lessen trauma to the turbinates during the insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway? 25) A) Do not use any lubricant, as it causes irritation. B) Point the bevel away from the septum. C) Use a twisting and upward motion. D) Slide it along the floor of the nasal cavity. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    Answer Key Testname: C4 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 6

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    Exam Name___________________________________ SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 1) This Chapter Does Not Contain Questions 1) Answer: Explanation: 1

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    Answer Key Testname: C5 1) 2

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Your patient who was in a head - on MVC has asymmetric blood pressure measurements in the upper extremities, widened pulse pressure, and diminished lower extremity pulses. You suspect: 1) A) traumatic asphyxia. B) neurogenic shock. C) cardiac contusion. D) tear of the aorta. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2) What is the appropriate treatment regimen for a suspected hemothorax? 2) A) Oxygen, IV fluids to maintain a peripheral pulse, transport B) IV fluids to increase output, cardiac monitor, pericardiocentesis C) Ventilation, needle decompression, IV fluid wide open D) Intubation, stabilization of the chest wall, manage shock Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3) The best initial intervention for an open pneumothorax is: 3) A) needle decompression, second intercostal space. B) applying an occlusive dressing taped on four sides. C) sealing the wound with a gloved hand. D) rapid recognition and transportation. Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4) The thoracic injury resulting in hemorrhage into lung parenchyma secondary to blunt force trauma or penetration injury is a(n): 4) A) tension pneumothorax. B) pulmonary contusion. C) tracheal/bronchial tear. D) esophageal disruption. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 1

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    5) Which of the following is NOT part of Beck's triad? 5) A) Jugular vein distension B) Hypertension C) Pulsus paradoxus D) Muffled heart tones Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6) What should be done with impaled objects in the thorax? 6) A) Leave in place, and do not stabilize, in case it needs to be removed. B) Leave in place, stabilize with bulky dressings, and maintain airway. C) Remove to do a complete assessment of the lung sounds. D) Remove the object; cover opening with an occlusive dressing. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 7) Which of the following is a sign of a tension pneumothorax? 7) A) There is hyperresonance to percussion on the affected side. B) The trachea deviates away from the injured side of the thorax. C) Jugular veins in the neck are flat and nondistended. D) There is hypertension and the associated change in breathing pattern. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 8) How large does a typical open wound to the thorax have to be to cause air to be drawn into the chest? 8) A) 1 cm B) 2 cm C) > 3 cm D) 3 cm Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 9) Large flail segments are best treated with: 9) A) ET intubation, assisted ventilation with PEEP. B) high doses of morphine for pain, bulky dressings. C) oxygen and continuous positive airway pressure. D) needle decompression and assisted ventilation. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 2

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    10) Tissue hypoxia due to a chest injury can result from all of the following EXCEPT: 10) A) ventilation/perfusion mismatch. B) pleural irritation and friction rub. C) hypovolemia from blood loss. D) pump failure from cardiac tamponade. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 11) What is the appropriate treatment regimen for a suspected tension pneumothorax? 11) A) IV fluids to increase output, cardiac monitor, pericardiocentesis B) Ventilation, needle decompression, IV fluids to manage hypotension C) Oxygen, IV fluids wide open, cardiac monitor, meds for dysrhythmias D) Intubation, stabilization of the chest wall with dressings, manage shock Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 12) Any blunt or penetrating trauma at or below the fourth intercostal space could cause injury to: 12) A) the thoracic and abdominal organs. B) the abdominal organs. C) the pelvic region. D) the thoracic organs. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 13) What is the one injury that is certain to result from a flail chest? 13) A) Pulmonary contusion B) Bronchial tree injury C) Traumatic aortic rupture D) Myocardial contusion Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 14) The traumatic condition that results in increased intrathoracic pressure, thus displacing the heart and trachea and collapsing the superior and inferior vena cava, is a: 14) A) traumatic aortic rupture. B) tension pneumothorax. C) pulmonary contusion. D) massive hemothorax. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 3

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    15) Immediate scene deaths usually involve which of the following thoracic injuries? 15) A) Pericardial tamponade B) Disruption of the great vessels C) Bilateral tension pneumothorax D) Secondary blast injuries Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 16) What is the primary blast phase injury caused by? 16) A) Chemicals B) Air blast C) Burns D) Shrapnel Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 17) How much blood volume can be potentially lost into the entire thoracic cavity? 17) A) 6000 ml B) 3000 ml C) 1500 ml D) 4500 ml Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 18) A suspected myocardial contusion should be managed in the same way as a: 18) A) traumatic aortic rupture. B) cardiac tamponade. C) pulmonary contusion. D) tracheal disruption. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 19) Which of the following is a sign associated with a hemothorax? 19) A) Jugular veins in the neck are flat and nondistended. B) There is no dullness to percussion on the affected side. C) There is hypertension and the associated change in mental status. D) There is tracheal deviation to the affected side of thorax. Answer: A Explanation: A) B) C) D) 4

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    20) The phrenic nerve origin is what part of the spinal cord? 20) A) C5 to C7 B) C1 to C2 C) C3 to C5 D) T1 to T3 Answer: C Explanation: A) B) C) D) 21) The easiest way to differentiate between a tension pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade is to: 21) A) look at the mechanism of injury. B) listen to breath sounds bilaterally. C) decompress the chest bilaterally. D) look at the work of breathing. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 22) The accumulation of air in the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura secondary to penetrating injury presenting as an open wound is a(n): 22) A) pleural pneumothorax. B) open pneumothorax. C) simple pneumothorax. D) closed pneumothorax. Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 23) Which injury is caused by a severe compression injury to the chest, such as from a steering wheel, conveyor belt, or heavy object? 23) A) Airway obstruction B) Traumatic asphyxia C) Open pneumothorax D) Tertiary blast injury Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 24) Which part of the ITLS trauma assessment will identify major thoracic injuries? 24) A) Ongoing assessment B) Primary survey C) Focused exam D) Secondary survey Answer: B Explanation: A) B) C) D) 5

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    25) The area of the thorax that includes the heart, the aorta and pulmonary artery, superior and inferior vena cava, trachea, major bronchi, and the esophagus is the: 25) A) rib cage. B) visceral pleura. C) parietal pleura. D) mediastinum. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) 6

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    Answer Key Testname: C6 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) D 7

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