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Test Bank For Essentials Of Pathophysiology: Concepts Of Altered Health States Third, North American Edition

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    Chapter_01 - _Cell_Structure_and_Function 1. The nucleus _________, which is essential for function and survival of the cell. A) is the site of protein synthesis B) contains the genetic code C) transforms cellular energy D) initiates aerobic metabolism 2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the “ power plants ” of the because they : A) contain RNA for protein synthesis. B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy. C) extract energy from organic compounds. D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions. 3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid bilayer, most specific membrane functions are carried out by: A) bound and transmembrane proteins. B) complex, long carbohydrate chains. C) surface antigens and hormone receptors. D) a gating system of selective ion channels. 4. To effectively relay signals, cell - to - cell communication utilizes chemical messenger system A) displace surface receptor proteins. B) accumulate within cell gap junctions. C) bind to contractile microfilaments. D) release secretions into extracellular fluid. 5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by: A) removing the phosphate bonds from ATP. B) combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water. C) activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm.

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    D) breaking down glucose to form lactic acid. 6. Exocytosis, the reverse of endocytosis, is important in _______ into the extracellular fluid. A) Engulfing and ingesting fluid and proteins for transport B) Killing, degrading, and dissolving harmful microorganisms C) Removing cellular debris and releasing synthesized substances D) Destruction of particles by lysosomal enzymes for secretion 7. The process responsible for generating and conducting membrane potentials is: A) diffusion of current - carrying ions. B) millivoltage of electrical potential. C) polarization of charged particles. D) ion channel neurotransmission. 8. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the number of layers. of the following is a correctly matched description and type of epithelial tissue? A) Simple epithelium: cells in contact with intercellular matrix; some do not extend to su B) Stratified epithelium: single layer of cells; all cells rest on basement membrane C) Glandular epithelium: arise from surface epithelia and underlying connective tissue D) Pseudostratified epithelium: multiple layers of cells; deepest layer rests on basement membrane 9. Connective tissue contains fibroblasts that are responsible for: A) providing a fibrous framework for capillaries. B) synthesis of collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. C) forming tendons and the fascia that covers muscles. D) filling spaces between tissues to keep organs in place. 10. Although all muscle tissue cells have some similarities, smooth muscle (also known as involuntary muscle) differs by: A) having dense bodies attached to actin filaments. B) containing sarcomeres between Z lines and M bands. C) having rapid contractions and abundant cross - striations. D) contracting in response to increased intracellular calcium. 11. Which of the following aspects of the function of the nucleus is performed by ribosomal R (rRNA)?

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    A) Copying and carrying DNA instructions for protein synthesis B) Carrying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis C) Providing the site where protein synthesis occurs D) Regulating and controlling protein synthesis 12. Breakdown and removal of foreign substances and worn - out cell parts are performed by w the following organelles? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) 13. Impairment in the function of peroxisomes would result in: A) inadequate sites for protein synthesis. B) an inability to transport cellular products across the cell membrane. C) insufficient energy production within a cell. D) accumulation of free radicals in the cytoplasm. 14. After several months of trying to conceive, a couple is undergoing fertility testing. Semen analysis indicates that the man’s sperm have decreased motility, a finding that is thought to underlie the couple’s inability to become pregnant. Which of the following cellular compo may be defective within the man’s sperm? A) Ribosomes B) Microtubules C) Mitochondria D) Microfilaments 15. Which of the following statements is true of glycolysis? A) Glycolysis requires oxygen. B) Glycolysis occurs in cells without mitochondria. C) Glycolysis provides the majority of the body’s energy needs. D) Glycolysis produces energy, water, and carbon dioxide. 16. Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms requires the greatest amount of e A) Facilitated diffusion B) Passive transport

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    C) Vesicular transport D) Simple diffusion 17. A male patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of glucose transporters in his membranes. Consequently, his cells lack intracellular glucose and it accumulates in his blo Which of the following processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Simple diffusion C) Secondary active transport D) Endocytosis 18. Which of the following statements is true of skeletal muscle cells? A) Skeletal muscle cells each have an apical, lateral, and basal surface. B) They are closely apposed and are joined by cell - to - cell adhesion molecules. C) Their basal surface is attached to a basement membrane. D) Skeletal muscle is multinucleated, lacking true cell boundaries. 19. Which of the following body tissues exhibits the highest rate of turnover and renewal? A) The squamous epithelial cells of the skin B) The connective tissue supporting blood vessels C) The skeletal muscle that facilitates movement D) The nervous tissue that constitutes the central nervous system 20. A patient with a pathophysiologic condition that affects the desmosomes is most likely to e A) impaired contraction of skeletal and smooth muscle. B) weakness of the collagen and elastin fibers in the extracellular space. C) impaired communication between neurons and effector organs. D) separation at the junctions between epithelial cells. Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B

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    6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. D Page 1 Chapter_02 - _Cellular_Responses_to_Stress ,_Injury,_and_Aging 1. Ischemia and other toxic injuries increase the accumulation of intracellular calcium as a resu A) release of stored calcium from the mitochondria. B) improved intracellular volume regulation. C) decreased influx across the cell membrane. D) attraction of calcium to fatty infiltrates. 2. The patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Ada to the reduced size of the liver leads to ___________ of the remaining liver cells. A) metaplasia

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    B) organ atrophy C) compensatory hyperplasia D) physiologic hypertrophy 3. A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is partially clea but he remains hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The prolonged cell hypoxia caused a c infarction and resulting __________ in the brain. A) caspase activation B) coagulation necrosis C) rapid phagocytosis D) protein p53 deficiency 4. Bacteria and viruses cause cell damage by _______, which is unique from the intracellular d caused by other injurious agents. A) disrupting the sodium/potassium ATPase pump B) interrupting oxidative metabolism processes C) replicating and producing continued injury D) decreasing protein synthesis and function 5. The patient has a prolonged interruption in arterial blood flow to his left kidney, causing hyp cell injury and the release of free radicals. Free radicals damage cells by: A) destroying phospholipids in the cell membrane. B) altering the immune response of the cell. C) disrupting calcium storage in the cell. D) inactivation of enzymes and mitochondria. 6. Injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a result of: A) increased fat load. B) altered permeability. C) altered glucose utilization. D) increased surface receptors. 7. Reversible adaptive intracellular responses are initiated by: A) stimulus overload. B) genetic mutations. C) chemical messengers.

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    D) mitochondrial DNA. 8. Injured cells become very swollen as a result of: A) increased cell protein synthesis. B) altered cell volume regulation. C) passive entry of potassium into the cell. D) bleb formation in the plasma membrane. 9. A diabetic patient has impaired sensation, circulation, and oxygenation of his feet. He steps piece of glass, the wound does not heal, and the area tissue becomes necrotic. The necrotic c death is characterized by: A) rapid apoptosis. B) cellular rupture. C) shrinkage and collapse. D) chronic inflammation. 10. A 99 - year - old woman has experienced the decline of cell function associated with age. A g of theories of cellular aging focus on programmed: A) changes with genetic influences. B) elimination of cell receptor sites. C) insufficient telomerase enzyme. D) DNA mutation or faulty repair. 11. An 89 - year - old female patient has experienced significant decreases in her mobility and st during a 3 - week hospital stay for the treatment of a femoral head fracture. Which of the fo phenomena most likely accounts for the patient’s decrease in muscle function that underlie reduced mobility? A) Impaired muscle cell metabolism resulting from metaplasia B) Dysplasia as a consequence of inflammation during bone remodeling C) Disuse atrophy of muscle cells during a prolonged period of immobility D) Ischemic atrophy resulting from vascular changes while on bedrest 12. A 20 - year - old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell sam for evidence of: A) changes in cell shape, size, and organization. B) the presence of unexpected cell types.

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    C) ischemic changes in cell samples. D) abnormally high numbers of cells in a specified field. 13. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to result in metastatic calcification? A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia B) Liver cirrhosis C) Impaired glycogen metabolism D) Hyperparathyroidism 14. Despite the low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technician’s precautions? A) Radiation stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia. B) Radiation results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the cytoplasm C) Radiation interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis. D) Radiation decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells. 15. The parents of a 4 - year - old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to ch and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Whi the following blood tests should the care team prioritize? A) White blood cell levels with differential B) Red blood cell levels and morphology C) Urea and creatinine levels D) Liver function panel 16. A 70 - year - old male patient has been admitted to a hospital for the treatment of a recent hemorrhagic stroke that has left him with numerous motor and sensory deficits. These defi most likely the result of which of the following mechanisms of cell injury? A) Free rad ical injury B) Hypoxia and ATP depletion C) Interference with DNA synthesis D) Impaired calcium homeostasis 17. Which of the following processes associated with cellular injury is most likely to be revers A) Cell damage resulting from accumulation of fat in the cytoplasm B) Cellular changes as a result of ionizing radiation

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    C) Cell damage from accumulation of free radicals D) Apoptosis 18. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis can be initiated by: A) damage to cellular DNA. B) decreased ATP levels. C) activation of the p53 protein. D) activation of death receptors on the cell surface. 19. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on t great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contr to this diagnosis? A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis B) Bacterial invasion C) Impaired arterial blood supply D) Metaplastic cellular changes 20. Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence? A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities among differe individuals. B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a cell. C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later generations cell. D) Aging produces mutations in DNA and deficits in DNA repair. Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. B

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    10. A 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B Page 1 Chapter_03 - _Inflammation,_the_Inflammat ory_Response,_and_Fever 1. The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include: A) fever. B) fatigue. C) redness. D) granuloma. 2. The vascular, hemodynamic stage of acute inflammation is initiated by momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation that causes localized: A) bleeding. B) congestion. C) pale skin. D) coolness. 3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of leukocytes into the

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    Which of the following cells arrives early in great numbers? A) Basophils B) Lymphocytes C) Neutrophils D) Platelets 4. The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step in the process A) Engulfment B) Intracellular killing C) Antigen margination D) Recognition and adherence 5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability a pain? A) Serotonin B) Histamine C) Bradykinin D) Nitric oxide 6. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates composed of enmeshed necrotic cells? A) Serous B) Fibrinous C) Suppurative D) Membranous 7. The acute - phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of inflammation includes: A) fever and lethargy. B) decreased C - reactive protein. C) positive nitrogen balance. D) low erythrocyte sedimentation rate. 8. In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the fol phenomena? A) Profuse fibrinous exudation

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    B) A “ shift to the left ” of granulocyte s C) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis D) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages 9. Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin - 1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood lead to the rele endogenous pyrogens that: A) stabilize thermal control in the brain. B) produce leukocytosis and anorexia. C) block viral replication in cells. D) inhibit prostaglandin release. 10. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempted to boost hers in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wou Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient’s inflamm A) Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces B) Chemotaxis C) Accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium D) Phagocytosis of cellular debris 11. Which of the following individuals most likely has the highest risk of experiencing chroni inflammation? A) A patient who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes B) A patient who is a carrier of an antibiotic - resistant organism C) A patient who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection D) A patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle 12. Which of the following core body temperatures is within normal range? A) 35.9°C (96.6°F) B) 38.0°C (100.4°F) C) 35.5°C (95.9°F) D) 37.3°C (99.1°F) 13. A postsurgical patient who is recovering in the postanesthetic recovery unit states that she “ freezing cold. ” Which of the following measures is likely to be initiated in the patient’s hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss ? A) Opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts B) Reduced exhalation of warmed air

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    C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles D) Decreased urine production 14. An elderly patient is dressed only in a hospital gown and complains of a draft in her room. Consequently, she has requested a warm blanket while she sits in her wheelchair. Which o following mechanisms of heat loss is most likely the primary cause of her request? A) Evaporation and conduction B) Radiation and convection C) Conduction and convection D) Convection and evaporation 15. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes are capable of inducing the production pyrogens? Select all that apply. A) Acute inflammation B) Obesity C) Myocardial infarction D) Malignancy E) Renal failure 16. Which of the following patients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a neurogenic A) A patient who has stage II Alzheimer disease B) A patient who has sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash C) A patient who has become delirious after the administration of a benzodiazepine D) A patient who has begun taking a selective serotonin - reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for th treatment of depression 17. Patients are commonly administered antipyretics when their oral temperature exceeds 37.5 (99.5°F). Which of the following statements related to the rationale for this action is most accurate? A) Temperatures in excess of 37.5°C (99.5°F) can result in seizure activity. B) Lower temperatures inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria. C) There is little empirical evidence for this treatment modality. D) Most common antipyretics have been shown to have little effect on core temperature 18. A patient has sought care because of recent malaise and high fever. Upon assessment, the states that his current fever began two days earlier, although he states that for the last 2 we is in a cycle of high fever for a couple of days followed by a day or two of normal tempera Which of the followin g fever patterns is this patient experiencing?

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    A) Recurrent fever B) Remittent fever C) Sustained fever D) Intermittent fever 19. A febrile, 3 - week - old infant has been brought to the emergency department by his parents currently undergoing a diagnostic workup to determine the cause of his fever. Which of th following statements best conveys the rationale for this careful examination? A) The immature hypothalamus is unable to perform normal thermoregulation. B) Infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased immune funct C) Commonly used antipyretics often have no effect on the core temperature of infants. D) Fever in neonates is often evidence of a congenital disorder rather than an infection. 20. An 84 - year - old patient’s blood cultures have come back positive, despite the fact that his o temperature has remained within normal range. Which of the following phenomena underl alterations in fever response that occur in the elderly? A) Disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center B) Increased heat loss by evaporation C) The presence of comorbidities that are associated with lowered core temperature D) Persistent closure of arteriovenous shunts Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. D

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    13. C 14. B 15. A, C, D 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A Page 1 Chapter_04 - _Cell_Proliferation,_Tissue_Re generation,_and_Repair 1. Epithelialization, the first component of the proliferative phase of wound healing, is delayed open wounds until after ________ has formed. A) granulation tissue B) fibrinous meshwork C) capillary circulation D) collagenous layers 2. A mutation has occurred during mitosis of an individual’s bone marrow cell. This event may result of the failure of which of the following? A) Progenitor cells B) Fibroblasts C) Stem cells D) Cyclins 3. A patient has experienced a myocardial infarction with accompanying necrosis of cardiac m permanent tissue. What are the ramifications of the fact that cardiac muscle is a permanent t A) The cardiac muscle cells will remain perpetually in the G1 stage of mitosis.

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    B) Regeneration of the patient’s cardiac muscle will be exceptionally slow. C) The necrotic cells will be replaced with muscle cells that have limited metabolism. D) The cells will not proliferate and will be replaced with scar tissue. 4. A couple have chosen to pay for the harvesting and storage of umbilical cord blood after the delivery of their child to secure a future source of embryonic stem cells. What is the most lik rationale for the couple’s decision? A) The stem cells may be able to produce a wide range of body cells. B) The embryonic stem cells allow stable and permanent tissues to enter mitosis. C) The stem cells can change the proliferative capacity of other cells. D) The embryonic stem cells remove cyclin - dependent kinase inhibitors from the body. 5. The basement membrane surrounding a patient’s foot wound remains intact, a fact that bode for the wound - healing process. Which of the following components constitute this form of t extracellular matrix? Select all that apply. A) Prostaglandins B) Fibrous structural proteins C) Lymphocytes D) Water - hydrated gels E) Glycoproteins 6. A nursing student is cleaning and changing the dressing on a patient’s sacral ulcer. The stud vigorously cleansed the wound bed to remove all traces of the beefy, red tissue that existed wound bed. The student has most likely removed: A) Necrotic tissue B) Granulation tissue C) Stem cells D) The extracellular matrix 7. A 12 - year - old boy’s severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to heal and cu shows no signs of infection. Which of the following processes occurred first during this pro repair by connective tissue deposition? A) Reorganization of fibrous tissue B) Angiogenesis C) Emigration of fibroblasts to the wound site D) Deposition of the extracellular matrix

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    8. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention? A) A finger laceration that a cook received while cutting up onions B) A boy’s “ road rash ” that he got by falling off his bicycl e C) A needlestick injury that a nurse received when injecting a patient’s medication D) The incision from a teenager’s open appendectomy 9. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process that characterizes this p the patient’s healing? A) Hemostasis and vasoconstriction B) Keloid formation C) Collagen secretion by fibroblasts D) Phagocytosis by neutrophils 10. Which of the following surgical patients is most likely to experience enhanced wound hea a result of his or her diet? A) A patient who eats a high - calorie diet and large amounts of red meat B) A patient who is a vegetarian and who eats organic foods whenever possible C) A patient who practices carefully calorie control and who avoids animal fats D) A patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition due to recurrent nausea 11. Which of the following patients is most likely to experience impaired wound healing? A) A patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood sugar contro B) A child whose severe cleft lip and palate have required a series of surgeries over sev months C) A patient who takes nebulized bronchodilators several times daily to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) A patient with persistent hypertension who takes a b - adrenergic blocker and a potass wasting diuretic daily Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B, D, E

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    6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. A Page 1 Chapter_05 - _Genetic_Control_of_Cell_Func tion_and_Inheritance 1. Triplet codes of three bases are the genetic codes used in transmitting genetic information necessary for: A) chromatin formation. B) protein synthesis. C) enzyme activation. D) nucleotide bonding. 2. Unlike messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer RNA (tRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA): A) is produced in the nucleolus. B) delivers activated amino acids. C) is formed by transcription. D) coordinates RNA translation. 3. Splicing of mRNA during processing permits a cell to: A) form different proteins. B) increase DNA content. C) stop copying DNA onto RNA. D) add nucleic acid end pieces. 4. When an infant is born with gene mutations in his/her cells, the errors may be a result of all

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    following except _____________ of base pairs. A) deletion B) substitution C) differentiation D) rearrangement 5. Identifying the genetic sex of a child is based on finding intracellular Barr bodies that consis A) inactive chromatin material. B) male - specific chromosomes. C) homologous chromosomes. D) excess autosomal material. 6. Multifactorial inheritance is similar to polygenic inheritance because both involve: A) environmental effects on alleles. B) multiple alleles at different loci. C) predictable somatic allele effects. D) homozygous pairing of two alleles. 7. Crossing over of chromatid segments during meiosis division 1 results in: A) spontaneous gene mutations. B) initial DNA synthesis. C) bivalent X and Y genes. D) new gene combinations. 8. During the transcription process, RNA: A) polymerase attaches to DNA. B) exon sequences are reversed. C) delivers activated amino acids. D) reverses redundant base pairs. 9. The process of gene expression is increased by: A) mutation of normal suppressor genes. B) induction by an external influence. C) repression of internal penetrance. D) activation of growth control genes.

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    10. Gene therapy, insertion of genes into the genome of multicellular organisms, is accomplish A) restriction enzymes. B) transferring genes. C) DNA fragment separation. D) cross - over gene exchange. 11. Which of the following statements is true of genetic mutations? A) Errors in DNA duplication are normally irreparable. B) Mutations that occur in somatic cells are inheritable. C) Mutations may result from extrinsic factors or from spontaneous error. D) Errors in DNA replication are most often fatal. 12. Individual differences in appearance, behavior, and disease susceptibility are a result of: A) karyotyping. B) mutations. C) DNA repair. D) a haplotype. 13. Which of the following statements is true of messenger RNA (mRNA)? A) mRNA is produced in the nucleolus. B) mRNA provides the template for protein synthesis. C) Each mRNA molecule has two recognition sites. D) mRNA delivers the activated form of an amino acid to the protein being synthesized 14. Prenatal genetic testing that counts the number of Barr bodies in a chromosome is able to determine: A) the genetic sex of a child. B) susceptibility to hemophilia B. C) the presence of fragile X syndrome. D) fetal viability. 15. The gene responsible for a particular congenital cardiac anomaly is said to have complete penetrance. What are the clinical implications of this fact? A) The anomaly is a result of polygenetic inheritance. B) The heart defect does not result from any other gene. C) Multiple alleles contribute to the defect.

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    D) All the individuals who possess the gene will exhibit the anomaly. 16. A dominant genetic trait: A) is expressed only in a heterozygous pairing. B) is expressed in either a homozygous or heterozygous pairing. C) is expressed only in a homozygous pairing. D) is expressed in some carriers. 17. Which of the following methods of genetic mapping focuses on the measurement of enzym activity? A) Hybridization studies B) Haplotype mapping C) Linkage studies D) Gene dosage studies 18. Which of the following facts underlies the application of RNA interference in the treatmen disease? A) Restriction enzymes are able to cleave genetic molecules at predictable sites. B) It is possible to produce proteins that have therapeutic properties. C) Faulty gene activity that produces unwanted proteins can sometimes be stopped. D) Individual differences are attributable to a very small percentage of the genes in the h body. 19. Although the majority of cellular DNA exists in the cell nucleus, part of the cell DNA is lo in the: A) mitochondria. B) Golgi apparatus. C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D) microfilaments. 20. Which of the following is an application of recombinant DNA technology? A) Production of human insulin B) DNA fingerprinting C) Gene dosage studies D) Somatic cell hybridization Answer Key

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    1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. A Page 1 Chapter_06 - _Genetic_and_Congenital_Diso rders 1. Genetic disorders that involve a single gene trait are characterized by: A) multifactorial gene mutations. B) chromosome rearrangements.

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    C) Mendelian patterns of transmission. D) abnormal numbers of chromosomes. 2. In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder from an af parent, such a disorder is characterized by: A) aneuploidy of genes in all cells. B) deficiencies in enzyme synthesis. C) affected X transmission to daughters. D) varied gene penetration and expression. 3. Autosomal recessive disorders are characterized by: A) age of onset later in life. B) abnormal protein structure. C) inborn errors of metabolism. D) one in two risk of a carrier child. 4. When a male child inherits an X - linked disorder from his heterozygous carrier mother, A) his sons will be carriers. B) his father has the disorder. C) some of his sisters will be carriers. D) his daughters will have the disorder. 5. Multifactorial inheritance disorders, such as cleft palate, are often caused by____________ fetal development. A) multiple gene mutations B) dominant gene expression C) X - linked crossover problem D) polyploidy of chromosomes 6. The newborn has the distinctive physical features of trisomy 21, Down syndrome, which inc A) upward slanting of eyes. B) large, protruding ears. C) thin lips and small tongue. D) long fingers with extra creases. 7. Aneuploidy of the X chromosome can result in a monosomy or polysomy disorder. The manifestations of monosomy X, Turner syndrome, differ from polysomy X disorders in num

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    ways that include: A) short - stature female individual.. B) mental retardation. C) enlarged breasts. D) early onset puberty. 8. A teratogenic environmental agent can cause birth defects when: A) inherited as a recessive trait. B) intense exposure occurs at birth. C) disjunction occurs during meiosis. D) retained during early pregnancy. 9. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is unlike other teratogens in that the harmful effects on the fe A) directly result in liver damage. B) extend throughout the pregnancy. C) is most noticeable in adulthood. D) cause death in early childhood. 10. Prenatal diagnosis methods include the use of ultrasonography for identifying ________ abnormalities. A) cytogenic B) skeletal C) chromosomal D) a - fetoprotein 11. A woman who is a carrier for which of the following diseases possesses the greatest likelih passing the disease to her future children when heterozygous pairing exists? A) Phenylketonuria (PKU) B) Tay - Sachs disease C) Neurofibromatosis D) Cystic fibrosis 12. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? A) Onset is typically late in childhood or early in adulthood. B) Symptomatology is less uniform than with autosomal dominant disorders. C) Mitochondrial DNA is normally the site of genetic alteration.

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    D) Effects are typically the result of alterations in enzyme function. 13. The parents of a newborn infant are relieved that their baby was born healthy, with the exc of a cleft lip that will be surgically corrected in 10 or 12 weeks. Which of the nurse’s follo statements to the parents best conveys the probable cause of the infant’s cleft lip? A) “ Though you are both healt hy, you likely both carry the gene for a cleft lip. ” B) “ Provided one of you had the gene for a cleft lip, your baby likely faced a 50/50 cha having one. ” C) “ Your child’s cleft lip likely results from the interplay between environment and ge D) “ A cleft lip can sometimes result from taking prescription drugs, even when they’re as ordered. ” 14. Which of the following practitioners is most likely to be of assistance in the early care of a infant with a cleft lip? A) Lactation consultant B) Respiratory therapist C) Occupational therapist D) Social worker 15. A 41 - year - old woman has made the recent decision to start a family, and is eager to underg testing to mitigate the possibility of having a child with Down syndrome. Which of the fol tests is most likely to provide the data the woman seeks? A) Genetic testing of the woman B) Genetic testing of the woman and the father C) Prenatal blood tests D) Ultrasonography 16. Genetic testing has revealed that a male infant has been born with an extra X chromosome are the most likely implications of this finding? A) The child is unlikely to survive infancy B) The child is likely to have no manifestations of this chromosomal abnormality C) The child will have significant neurological and cognitive defects D) The child will be unable to reproduce 17. Which of the following variables determine the extent of teratogenic drug effects? Select a apply. A) Maternal health history B) Molecular weight of the drug

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    C) Stage of pregnancy when the drug was taken D) Duration of drug exposure E) Fetal blood type 18. A woman who has just learned that she is pregnant for the first time has sought advice from healthcare provider about the safe use of alcohol during pregnancy. What advice should th clinician provide to the woman? A) “It’s likely best to eliminate alcohol from your diet while you’re pregnant. ” B) “ Moderation in alcohol use is critical while you are pregnant. ” C) “ You should limit yourself to a maximum of one drink daily while you’re pregnant. D) “ You should drink no alcohol until you are in your second trimester. ” 19. Which of the following health problems may be identified by a TORCH screening test? A) Rubella and herpes B) Tenovaginitis and human papillomavirus C) Rhinovirus and Ormond disease D) Chlamydia and rickets 20. Ultrasonography is most likely to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities? A) Neural tube defects B) Skeletal abnormalities C) Chromosomal defects D) Single - gene disorders Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B

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    11. C 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B, C, D 18. A 19. A 20. B Page 1 Chapter_07 - _Neoplasia 1. Unlike the tissue growth that occurs with hypertrophy and hyperplasia, the growth of a mali is: A) adaptive. B) specialized. C) predictable. D) autonomous. 2. In contrast to malignancies, benign tumors are characterized by: A) a fibrous capsule. B) distant infiltration. C) rapid replication. D) undifferentiated cells. 3. Because of their rapid growth, malignant tumors affect area tissues by: A) increasing tissue blood flow. B) providing essential nutrients. C) liberating enzymes and toxins. D) forming fibrous membranes.

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    4. The metastatic spread of tumor cells is facilitated by _______ that enables invasion and mov to distant tissues. A) cell cohesiveness B) enzyme secretion C) contact inhibition D) cell - to - cell signaling 5. The angiogenesis process, which allows tumors to develop new blood vessels, is triggered a regulated by tumor - secreted: A) procoagulants. B) growth factors. C) attachment factors. D) proteolytic enzymes. 6. Cancerous transformation of a cell requires the activation of: A) cell cycle apoptosis. B) multiple mutations. C) a single gene mutation. D) tumor suppressor genes. 7. Although clinical manifestations vary with the type of cancer and organs involved, abnorma growth causes general manifestations that include: A) copious lymph flow. B) sleep disturbances. C) involuntary weight gain. D) visceral organ expansion. 8. Paraneoplastic syndromes are manifestations of cancer that often result from: A) radiation and chemotherapy. B) compression of area vessels. C) tumor - related tissue necrosis. D) inappropriate hormone release. 9. Although both grading and staging are methods for classifying cancer and selecting a treatm plan, staging is used to determine the: A) number of mitoses.

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    B) tissue characteristics. C) level of differentiation. D) extent of disease spread. 10. Early diagnosis of childhood cancers is often difficult because the signs and symptoms are A) already present at birth. B) absent until the late stage. C) similar to those of other childhood diseases. D) seen as developmental delays. 11. A lung biopsy and magnetic resonance imaging have confirmed the presence of a benign l tumor in a patient. Which of the following characteristics are associated with this patient’s neoplasm? A) The tumor will grow by expansion and is likely encapsulated. B) The cells that constitute the tumor are undifferentiated, with atypical structure. C) If left untreated, the patient’s tumor is likely to metastasize. D) The tumor is likely to infiltrate the lung tissue that presently surrounds it. 12. Which of the following processes characterizes an epigenetic contribution to oncogenesis? A) A DNA repair mechanism is disrupted. B) A tumor suppressor gene is present, but it is not expressed. C) Cells lose their normal contact inhibition. D) Regulation of apoptosis in impaired, resulting in accumulation of cancer cells. 13. A farmer’s long - term exposure to pesticides has made the cells in his alveoli and bronchia susceptible to malignancy. Which of the following processes has taken place in the farmer lungs? A) Promotion B) Progression C) Initiation D) Differentiation 14. Genetic screening may be indicated for individuals who have a family history of which of following neoplasms? A) Liver cancer B) Multiple myeloma C) Leukemia

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    D) Breast cancer 15. A public health nurse has cited a reduction in cancer risk among the many benefits of main a healthy body - mass index. Which of the following facts underlies the relationship betwee obesity and cancer? A) Obesity can cause inflammation and hormonal changes that are associated with canc B) Adipose tissue is more susceptible to malignancy than other types of connective tissu C) Increased cardiac workload and tissue hypoxia can interfere with normal cell differentiation. D) Increased numbers of body cells increase the statistical chances of neoplastic cell cha 16. Which of the following dietary guidelines should a nurse provide to a group of older adult possibly decrease their risks of developing colon cancer? A) “ As much as possible, try to eat organic foods. ” B) “ Regular vitamin supplements and a low - carbohydrate diet are beneficial. ” C) “ Try to minimize fat and maximize fiber when you’re planning your meals. ” D) “ Eat enough fiber in your diet that you have bowel movement at least once daily. ” 17. A male patient with a diagnosis of liver cancer has been recently admitted to a palliative ca following his recent development of bone metastases. Despite his family’s encouragement patient has experienced precipitous weight loss in recent weeks. Which of the following fa may underlie the patient’s loss of fat and muscle mass? A) The action of cytokines and consequent inflammation B) Loss of appetite due to fatigue and pain C) Changes in peptide hormone levels D) Production of onconeural antigens by cancerous cells 18. A 51 - year - old patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer with lung metastases Which of the following treatment options is most likely to treat both her primary and dista cancer sites? A) Radiation therapy B) Chemotherapy C) Surgery D) Hormone therapy 19. A patient’s oncologist has presented the possibility of implementing biotherapy in the trea of the patient’s brain tumor. Which of the following mechanisms of action provide the the effects of biotherapy? Select all that apply.

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