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Test Bank For Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist: A Positive Care Approach, 4th Edition

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    1 Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms is used to describe surgical intervention that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time, for example, a torn meniscus repair? a. elective b. emergent c. optional d. urgent ANS: A PTS: 1 2. Which of the following historical figures is considered the father of modern anatomy and changed the traditional approach to anatomical studies? a. Aristotle b. Homer c. Paré d. Vesalius ANS: D PTS: 1 3. Which of the following historical figures developed the first x-ray machine? a. Celsius b. Jenner c. Lister d. Roentgen ANS: D PTS: 1 4. How many phases of surgical case management are there? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANS: B PTS: 1 5. Which of the following surgical team members would be primarily responsible for maintaining the patient’s operative record and transporting the patient to the post -anesthesia care unit (PACU)? a. anesthesia provider b. circulating RN c. surgeon d. surgical technologist ANS: B PTS: 1 6. Which of the following surgical team members would be responsible for separating instruments and disassembling the sterile field in the postoperative phase? a. CRNA b. CRNFA c. CSFA d. CST ANS: D PTS: 1

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    2 7. Which organization develops national certification exams for surgical technologists and surgical first assistants and confers the appropriate credential to eligible certificants? a. ARC/STSA b. AST c. CAAHEP d. NBSTSA ANS: D PTS: 1 8. Which of the following symbols on the Association of Surgical Technologists (AST) logo represents the surgical technologist performing various roles in surgery? a. empty circle b. empty rectangle c. filled circle d. filled rectangle ANS: C PTS: 1 9. Which of the following roles is defined by the American College of Surgeons (ACS) as providing aid in exposure, hemostasis, and other technical functions that help the surgeon carry out a safe operation with optimal results for the patient? a. assistant circulator b. surgical first assistant c. first scrub d. second scrub ANS: B PTS: 1 10. A private surgical technologist is usually employed by which of the following? a. surgeon or physician group b. ambulatory surgery center c. instrument sales company d. traveling staffing agency ANS: A PTS: 1 11. The terms entry-level , proficient , and expert practitioners are applied to which of the following? a. accreditation status of surgical technology programs b. continuing education (CE) credit categories c. NBSTSA certification titles d. AST recommended clinical ladder levels ANS: D PTS: 1 12. Which term describes the relationship between the certified surgical technologist (CST) and the other members of the surgical team in the OR? a. contractual b. professional c. social d. therapeutic ANS: B PTS: 1 13. Which term describes the relationship between the CST and the patient or the patient’s family? a. medical

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    3 b. professional c. social d. therapeutic ANS: D PTS: 1 14. In or by which of the four components of communication would “decoding” take place? a. sender b. message c. receiver d. feedback ANS: C PTS: 1 15. Which example of nonverbal body language might a patient perceive as a negative attitude from a team member? a. tightly folded arms b. direct eye contact c. leaning toward patient d. head nodding in agreement ANS: A PTS: 1 16. Which of the following behaviors would NOT be considered an example of “workplace violence”? a. rumors and gossip b. yielding to the other’s viewpoint c. unwanted sexual advances d. demeaning comments or criticisms ANS: B PTS: 1 17. According to the AST position statement on teamwork, which type of environment contributes most to a safe and efficient surgical experience with positive patient outcomes? a. collaborative b. corporate c. fast-paced d. technological ANS: A PTS: 1 18. Which term describes the surgical technologist’s foundational commitment to professional honesty, confidentiality, fair treatment, cost containment, and attention to the highest level of surgical patient care? a. aseptic principles b. job description c. policy and procedure d. surgical conscience ANS: D PTS: 1 19. Which term describes a physician-group-owned hospital? a. community b. nonprofit c. proprietary d. tax supported

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    4 ANS: C PTS: 1 20. Which acronym represents an organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services? a. CDC b. CEO c. FDA d. HMO ANS: D PTS: 1 21. Surgical technologists and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of which hospital administrative director? a. chief executive officer b. chief financial officer c. medical director d. director of nursing ANS: D PTS: 1 22. What type of professional would have DO or DPM after his or her name? a. doctor b. director c. dentist d. dietitian ANS: B PTS: 1 23. Through which hospital department or committee would the certified surgical first assistant (CSFA) submit a request for privileges to work in the operating room? a. risk management b. nursing services c. medical staff d. auxiliary and volunteers ANS: C PTS: 1 24. Which department would provide services for repair of broken equipment or to do routine preventive checks? a. biomedical engineering b. diagnostic imaging c. environmental services d. risk management ANS: A PTS: 1 25. What does the acronym DRG stand for in the hospital setting? a. doctor of gynecology b. department of radiography c. drug reference guide d. diagnosis related groups ANS: D PTS: 1 26. The federal governmental insurance programs under the general heading of CMS include all of the following EXCEPT:

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    5 a. Medicare Part A b. Medicare Part B c. CHAMPUS d. Medicaid ANS: C PTS: 1 27. Which of the following is the membership organization for surgical technology with a board of directors elected by a house of delegates? a. ARC/STSA b. AST c. CAAHEP d. NBSTSA ANS: B PTS: 1 28. When an ARC/STSA site visitor is sent to a surgical technology program to verify and clarify records and annual reporting information, to whom does he or she submit the findings? a. ACS b. AST c. CAAHEP d. NBSTSA ANS: C PTS: 1 29. Which of the following membership organizations would the circulating RN in the operating room likely join as a member? a. ACS b. AMA c. AAMI d. AORN ANS: D PTS: 1 30. The CST and CSFA credentials are registered trademarks of which organization? a. ARC/STSA b. AST c. CAAHEP d. NBSTSA ANS: D PTS: 1 31. The hospital’s infection control nurse would report any suspicion of rare or mys terious infectious diseases to which governmental agency? a. CDC b. EPA c. FDA d. OSHA ANS: A PTS: 1 32. Which organization would employees of the central sterile processing department likely join as members? a. AMA b. EPA c. IAHCSMM

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    6 d. NIOSH ANS: C PTS: 1 33. Which federal regulatory agency is dedicated to enforcing workplace safety and preventing worker injuries? a. ANSI b. EPA c. FDA d. OSHA ANS: D PTS: 1 34. Which of the following is an independent, nonprofit national organization that develops standards for and accredits health care organizations in the United States? a. the Joint Commission b. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services c. American National Standards Institute d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention ANS: A PTS: 1 35. A medical device or surgical piece of equipment that has failed would have to be taken out of service and any patient injury reported to which of the following agencies? a. EPA b. FDA c. OSHA d. WHO ANS: B PTS: 1 36. Which of the following pioneers of medicine and surgery first developed techniques for surgical antisepsis? a. Billroth b. Galen c. Halsted d. Lister ANS: D PTS: 1 37. Which specialist would likely have privileges to surgically treat diseases of the breast, hepatobiliary and gastrointestinal systems, and thyroid gland? a. endocrinologist b. general surgeon c. gynecologist d. urological surgeon ANS: B PTS: 1 38. After which of the following military conflicts did Great Britain and the United States begin to train and employ allied health professionals predominantly in the scrub role in surgery? a. Civil War b. Revolutionary War c. Vietnam War d. World War II

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    7 ANS: D PTS: 1 39. Which national membership organization’s House of Delegates proposed the creation of the Association of Operating Room Technicians (AORT) in 1969? a. ACS b. AMA c. ANA d. AORN ANS: D PTS: 1 40. What do conscientiousness, problem solving, skills competency, teamwork, and commitment to continuing education represent for a CST? a. college prerequisites b. legal doctrines c. professional traits d. religious philosophies ANS: C PTS: 1 MATCHING Match each term below with its description. a. Resume f. Role b. Surgical assistant g. Allied Health c. Job description h. Feedback d. Organizational structure i. Intraoperative case management e. Career ladder j. Problem - solving skills 1. Set of responsibilities or expected results associated with a job; descriptions are broad in scope 2. Prioritizing, considering alternatives, evaluating abilities, working with others to address challenges to patient care 3. Maintaining sterile field, passing instruments to surgeon, performing surgical counts, handling medications, preparing specimens and dressings 4. Individual with training and credentials to help position, drape, and transfer patient as well as provide visualization of operative site and close body planes 5. Title, requirements for employment, nature of position, duties, accountability for actions 6. Pathway or program of upward movement to positions of increased responsibility within an organization 7. Overview of career objectives, qualifications, experience, education and skills; used as reference in employment search 8. Important goal of communication process when the sender knows message was understood by receiver; may be either verbal or nonverbal. 9. Hierarchical layers of hospital administrative departments, services, directors, and trustees 10. Classification of cell saver, medical lab, radiology, EEG, and orthopedic technicians, and other hospital employees 1. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. ANS: J PTS: 1 3. ANS: I PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: E PTS: 1

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    8 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: H PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 10. ANS: G PTS: 1 TRUE/FALSE 1. A physician who is a contracted provider in a PPO or HMO will receive reimbursement for fees based on a capitated rate of payment. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. The ARC/STSA administers the national certification examination for surgical technologists and owns the CST® and CSFA® credentials. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. Professionalism is a lifelong commitment for a surgical technologist who has specific duties and responsibilities for providing the highest quality surgical patient care. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. AST’s mission statement is, “Enhancing the profession to ensure quality patient care.” ANS: T PTS: 1 5. Surgical technologists may discuss details of their daily experiences as long as they are not in a public place. ANS: F PTS: 1 Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care? a. A patient suffers a burn due to hot instruments. b. Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave. c. A tissue specimen is misplaced by a transporter. d. A retained surgical sponge is discovered in subsequent procedure. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. Which of the following legal doctrines would MOST likely apply in the case of a wrong site surgery or retained foreign body? a. aeger primo b. caveat emptor c. primum non nocere d. res ipsa loquitur ANS: D PTS: 1 3. The phrase “departure from the standard of care” BEST describes which of the following legal terms?

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    9 a. larceny b. liability c. malpractice d. negligence ANS: D PTS: 1 4. Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as “professional misconduct that results in harm to another”? a. allegation b. liability c. malpractice d. negligence ANS: C PTS: 1 5. What is the term that describes a method of pretrial discovery in which a surgical team member might answer questions under oath? a. allegation b. deposition c. indictment d. precedent ANS: B PTS: 1 6. Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional? a. battery b. defamation c. foreign bodies left in patient d. invasion of patient privacy ANS: C PTS: 1 7. Which type of consent applies when emergency circumstances exist when reasonable providers believe that a patient would agree to treatment, even if no form was signed or verbal permission given? a. direct b. implied c. informed d. general ANS: B PTS: 1 8. A special consent form would be required for which of the following situations during a hospital admission? a. chest x-ray b. phlebotomy c. respiratory therapy d. surgical procedure ANS: D PTS: 1 9. Which member of the surgical team is ultimately responsible for obtaining a written, informed surgical consent from a patient? a. anesthesia provider b. circulating RN

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    10 c. surgeon d. surgical technologist ANS: C PTS: 1 10. All of the following are components of the surgical patient’s medical record EXCEPT: a. anesthesia record b. history and physical c. interdepartmental communications d. surgeon’s preference card ANS: D PTS: 1 11. In 2004, which of the following agencies created the “Do Not Use” abbreviation list? a. the Joint Commission (JC) b. American Medical Association (AMA) c. Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN) d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) ANS: A PTS: 1 12. What is the name of the type of report sent to risk management in an effort to decrease the chance of harm to patients or staff or damage to hospital property? a. advance directive b. informed consent c. Safe Medical Device Act d. sentinel event ANS: D PTS: 1 13. Which of the following surgical patients would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law? a. premedicated competent adult b. adult in a persistent vegetative state c. an emancipated 16-year-old minor d. a foreign language speaker without an interpreter ANS: C PTS: 1 14. Which of the following pertains to a patient’ s wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate? a. advance directive b. deposition c. informed consent d. sentinel event ANS: A PTS: 1 15. Which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate, and legal records of a patient’s medical care? a. accountability b. consent c. documentation d. liability ANS: C PTS: 1

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    11 16. All of the following carry the force of state or national legal enforcement EXCEPT: a. implementation of the neutral zone b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Patient Self-Determination Act d. scope of practice ANS: A PTS: 1 17. The American Hospital Association replaced its “Patient’s Bill of Rights” with which of the following? a. doctrine of personal liability b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Patient Self-Determination Act d. Patient Care Partnership ANS: D PTS: 1 18. The broad objectives of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eliminate medical errors b. improve patient services c. protect patient privacy d. reduce health care fraud ANS: A PTS: 1 19. Which of the following terms describes a civil wrong that may be intentional or unintentional? a. complaint b. indictment c. liability d. tort ANS: D PTS: 1 20. The most common types of patient-care errors committed by operating room personnel, including negligence and malpractice, are categorized as: a. intentional torts b. corporate liability c. unintentional torts d. standard of care ANS: C PTS: 1 21. In a common adage, what is the “best medicine” in health care? a. conscience b. documentation c. judgment d. prevention ANS: D PTS: 1 22. According to the Joint Commission’s definition regarding consent to surgical intervention, which party has “autonomy”? a. anesthesia provider b. circulating RN

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    12 c. the patient d. the surgeon ANS: C PTS: 1 23. Which of the following terms describes the system of principles that become standards of conduct for professionals? a. doctrines b. ethics c. morals d. precedents ANS: B PTS: 1 24. Which of the following terms describes the principles such as benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty for the care and well-being of others in society? a. doctrines b. ethics c. morals d. precedents ANS: C PTS: 1 25. Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of a potential ethical dilemma? a. patient privacy b. genetic engineering c. elective abortion d. right to die, termination of care ANS: A PTS: 1 26. The legal term that identifies the knowledge and skills required for a profession and describes a health care provider’s core accountability, based on education, experience, and credentialing is: a. professional liability b. policies and procedures c. recommended standards of practice d. scope of practice ANS: D PTS: 1 27. Which of the following is NOT a form of individual professional credentialing that protects the public from unqualified health care providers? a. accreditation b. certification c. licensure d. registration ANS: A PTS: 1 28. Verification that educational programs meet minimum accreditation standards is done by: a. AST b. CAAHEP c. HIPAA d. NBSTSA ANS: B PTS: 1

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    13 29. Graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by: a. ARC/STSA b. AST c. CSPS d. NBSTSA ANS: D PTS: 1 30. The best assurance of safe and individual professional behavior by the CST or CSFA is a well- developed, unyielding: a. core curriculum b. liability insurance c. scope of practice d. surgical conscience ANS: D PTS: 1 31. Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving failure by the RN and CST to do proper surgical counts resulting in retention of a foreign object and the surgeon being found not liable? a. captain of the ship doctrine b. doctrine of borrowed servant c. doctrine of corporate negligence d. primum non nocere ANS: B PTS: 1 32. Which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving injury to a patient as a result of a hospital employee’s lack of proper training or credentialing? a. captain of the ship doctrine b. doctrine of borrowed servant c. doctrine of corporate negligence d. primum non nocere ANS: C PTS: 1 33. Which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel? a. civil b. criminal c. federal d. statutory ANS: A PTS: 1 34. If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following? a. assault b. battery c. intentional tort d. negligence ANS: D PTS: 1 35. Specimen loss, mislabeling, and improper preparation are examples of which of the following?

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    14 a. battery b. defamation c. intentional tort d. negligence ANS: D PTS: 1 36. Which of the following terms meets the following definition: a voluntary and informed act in which one party gives permission to another party to “touch”? a. advance directive b. battery c. consent d. time-out ANS: C PTS: 1 37. Which of the following forms of consent is defined by the Joint Commission as “agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to”? a. general b. implied c. informed d. special ANS: C PTS: 1 38. Surgical team members who fail to monitor and protect a medicated patient from falling could be charged with: a. abandonment b. assault c. battery d. larceny ANS: A PTS: 1 39. Which part of the patient’ s medical record documentation would contain pre-op and post-op diagnoses, positioning, skin prep, start and stop times, counts, and dressings? a. advance directive b. anesthesia record c. informed consent d. intraoperative record ANS: D PTS: 1 40. For which of the following processes are identification and reporting of unsafe conditions and hazards MOST critical? a. advance directives b. informed consent c. risk management d. unintentional torts ANS: C PTS: 1 41. Which of the following was identified in the late 1990’s as causing more deaths in the United States than car accidents, AIDS, and breast cancer combined? a. equipment manufacturing flaws b. H1N1 influenza

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    15 c. medical errors d. terrorist attacks ANS: C PTS: 1 42. What is the name of the organization whose focus is on patient and worker safety and is a unique coalition of surgeons (ACS), anesthesiologists (ASA), operating room (AORN) and perianesthesia (ASPAN) nurses, CRNAs (AANA), surgical physician assistants (AASPA), and surgical technologists (AST)? a. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) b. Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. the Joint Commission (TJC) ANS: B PTS: 1 43. What is establishing a neutral zone designed to do? a. diffuse potential violence in high-stress situations b. prevent sharps injuries during surgical procedures c. reduce cross-contamination in the OR suite d. quarantine patients with airborne diseases ANS: B PTS: 1 44. Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act? a. EPA b. FDA c. HIPAA d. OSHA ANS: B PTS: 1 45. The first scrub surgical technologist performs intraoperative tasks under the broad delegatory authority of the: a. anesthesiologist b. circulating RN c. OR supervisor d. surgeon ANS: D PTS: 1 MATCHING Match each term below with its description. a. Plaintiff k. Code of conduct b. Malpractice insurance l. Iatrogenic injury c. Defamation m. Accreditation d. Aeger primo n. Time - out e. Precedent o. Medical record f. Larceny p. Credential g. Patient q. Federal law h. Allegation r. Guardian i. Criminal negligence s. Intentional tort j. Primum non nocere t. Assault

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