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Marketing: An Introduction, 13th Edition Test Bank

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Which of the following techniques can be used to quantify protein - protein interactions? A) The two - hybrid system B) Chemical cross - linking C) Surface plasmon resonance D) Co - immunoprecipitation E) Affinity chromatography SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 2) 2) Oxaloacetate is replenished via the ________ in plants and bacteria. 3) 3) The glyoxylate cycle in plants and bacteria can be used for net carbohydrate synthesis from fat because isocitrate lyase yields glyoxylate and ________ without the loss of two carbons as occurs in the citric acid cycle. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 4) 4) All of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in the mitochondrion. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) 5) Which of the following does NOT apply to the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? A) Each intermediate in the five step reaction is able to diffuse to the next active site in a sequential manner. B) The process is highly exergonic and essentially irreversible in vivo. C) The product is acetyl CoenzymeA. D) It takes place in the mitochondrion. E) It is an oxidative decarboxylation. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 6) NAD + , coenzyme A, thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid and FAD are all cofactors used in the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase. 6) 7) 7) The citric acid cycle is classed as a reductive pathway as it produces reduced electron carriers. 1

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    8) 8) The two carbon atoms that are lost as CO 2 in the third and fourth steps of the citric acid cycle are the same as the two carbon atoms of acetyl CoA because of the stereochemistry of the isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) 9) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reaction of the citric acid cycle that does NOT produce reduced electron carriers? A) Succinate dehydrogenase B) Malate dehydrogenase C) ΅ - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase E) Succinyl N CoA synthetase SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 10) 10) Arsenic poisoning acts by inhibiting the citric acid cycle at the point of both pyruvate dehydrogenase and ΅ - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase because it makes a stable adduct with the ________ groups of the dihydrolipoamide intermediate. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) 11) One substrate level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle in the reaction catalyzed by: A) ΅ - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. B) isocitrate dehydrogenase. C) succinyl —CoA synthetase. D) succinate dehydrogenase. E) citrate synthase. 12) 12) Taking one mole of glucose through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle generates: A) 6C0 2 , 10 NADH/H + , 2FADH 2 and 4 ATP. B) 6C0 2 , 8 NADH/H + , 1FADH 2 and 2 ATP. C) 6C0 2 , 10 NADH/H + , 2FADH 2 and 2 ATP. D) 6C0 2 , 8 NADH/H + , 1FADH 2 and 1 ATP. E) 6C0 2 , 8 NADH/H + , 2FADH 2 and 4 ATP. 2

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    13) 13) Which of the following does NOT regulate flux through the citric acid cycle? A) Substrate availability B) The ratio of [NAD + ]/[NADH] C) Inhibition of ΅ - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase by succinyl CoA D) Allosteric inhibition of isocitrate dehydrogenase by ADP E) Ca 2 + activation of isocitrate dehydrogenase SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 14) 14) The malate dehydrogenase reaction has a strongly positive standard free energy change but it proceeds in the direction of oxaloacetate because the concentration of ________ is maintained at exceedingly low levels. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 15) 15) Transamination reactions can be used to provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 16) 16) The citric acid cycle can be considered both a ________ and anabolic pathway as it is used to oxidise acetyl CoA to carbon dioxide as well as to provide precursors for other ________ pathways. 17) 17) Acetyl CoA is a feed forward activator of the enzyme ________ ensuring sufficient oxaloacetate for the citric acid cycle to continue. 3

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13 1) C 2) glyoxylate pathway 3) succinate 4) TRUE 5) A 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) E 10) sulphydryl 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) oxaloacetate 15) TRUE 16) catabolic, biosynthetic 17) pyruvate carboxylase 4

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    Exam Name___________________________________ SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Electrons are transferred through the respiratory chain from reduced NADH or FADH 2 to oxygen in small steps with each step in the pathway associated with a slightly more ________ reduction potential. 2) 2) Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction FADH 2 + 1/2O 2  FAD + H 2 O given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of oxygen to water is + 0.82 V and for the reduction of FAD to FADH 2 is + 0.03 V. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) 3) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Cytochrome c and coenzyme Q are both soluble electron carriers that are loosely attached to the outside of the inner mitochondrial membrane. B) During electron transport protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane from the matrix to the intermembrane space. C) All of the protein complexes of the mitochondrial respiratory chain are bound in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) Oxygen is reduced to water at complex IV of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. E) The citric acid cycle is linked directly to the mitochondrial respiratory chain at the site of complex II. 4) 4) Which of the following is NOT an electron acceptor in the mitochondrial respiratory chain? A) Fe 3 + B) CoQH 2 C) FMN D) FAD E) Cu 2 + TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 5) 5) All of the cytochromes in the mitochondrial respiratory chain contain the same heme moiety as found in hemoglobin. 6) 6) CoQ carries electrons from NADH - Coenzyme Q reductase and succinate dehydrogenase as well as other flavoproteins to CoQ:Cytochrome c oxidoreductase. 1

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    MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) 7) Which of the following statements about oxidative phosphorylation by ATP synthase is FALSE? A) ATP synthesis occurs via simultaneous conformational changes in protein subunits containing catalytic sites. B) The electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane generated by electron flow is used to synthesize ATP. C) A proton gradient alone without a corresponding energy input is not sufficient to drive the synthesis of ATP. D) Uncouplers dissipate the electrochemical gradient but electron transport continues without ATP production. E) Inhibitors disrupt electron flow as well as ATP synthesis. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 8) 8) Electron transport through NADH - Coenzyme Q reductase (Complex I) is accompanied by transfer of ________ protons from the matrix to the intermembrane space. 9) 9) The Q cycle is responsible for transferring electrons from a two - electron donor ________ to a one - electron acceptor ________ at the point of complex III of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. 10) 10) Calculate the free energy change associated with transporting one proton from the matrix to the intermembrane space at 37 H C where the electrical potential across the membrane is ~ = 170 mV and the P pH is + 0.75. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 11) 11) Proton - driven rotation of the c - ring of the F 0 unit of the F 1 F 0 ATP synthase is required for complete passage of protons from the intermembrane space to the matrix. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 12) 12) Oligomycin is an inhibitor of ADP phosphorylation because it blocks the flow of protons through the ________. 2

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    MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) 13) Which of the following is NOT true of respiratory control? A) Oxidative phosphorylation is regulated by allosteric mechanisms. B) The rate of respiration is controlled by the balance between the P G's for phosphorylation of ADP, electron transport and proton pumping. C) Maintenance of respiratory control depends on the structural integrity of the mitochondrial inner membrane. D) The stimulation of respiration by addition of ADP is stoichiometric. E) Oxidative phosphorylation is absolutely dependent on the continued flow of electrons from substrates to oxygen. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 14) 14) Energy derived from oxidation of acetyl - CoA in the citric acid cycle is used for the production of ________ in brown adipose tissue because the mitochondria are rich in UCP1. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 15) 15) In animal cells the mitochondrial electron transport chain is responsible for reoxidizing most of the NADH produced by oxidative pathways regardless of the cellular compartment in which it was produced. 16) 16) The ATP yield from NADH transported across the mitochondrial inner membrane by the glycerol phosphate shuttle is the same as if the malate/aspartate shuttle were used. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 17) 17) Calculate the efficiency of energy conversion from glucose under aerobic conditions assuming that 32 moles of ATP are produced for each mole of glucose and given that P G 0' for glucose oxidation is - 2870kJ/mol and the P G 0' for ATP hydrolysis is - 32.2 kJ/mol. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) 18) Which of the following is NOT involved in the enzymatic inactivation of reactive oxygen species? A) Superoxide dismutase B) Peroxiredoxin C) Catalase D) Peroxidase E) Vitamin C 3

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    SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 19) 19) ________, which are potentially damaging, are generated because the interactions between one electron and two electron carriers are not 100% efficient. 4

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14 1) positive 2) - 152kJ/mol 3) A 4) B 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) C 8) four 9) CoQH 2 , cytochrome c 10) + 20.85kJ/mol 11) TRUE 12) F o proton channel 13) A 14) heat 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) 36% 18) E 19) Reactive oxygen species 5

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Which of the following statements about initiation of translation in bacteria is FALSE? A) The formyl group is transferred to Met - tRNA fMet from 10 - formyl - tetrahydrofolate. B) fMet - tRNA fMet is the only charged tRNA that can bind to the 30S subunit on its own. C) Pairing between mRNA and rRNA places the initiation codon next to the P site in the ribosome. D) Three initiation factor proteins are required to bind the mRNA and the initiator tRNA to the 30S ribosome. E) The complete 70S initiation complex ready to receive a second charged tRNA is assembled without any GTP hydrolysis. 2) 2) Which of the following statements about translation elongation in bacteria is TRUE? A) The growing polypeptide chain is moved from the A site to the P site before peptide bond formation. B) GTP hydrolysis occurs after moving the aminoacyl - tRNA into the A site and before peptide bond formation. C) The entire peptidyl - tRNA is translocated from the P site to the A site during peptide bond formation. D) The uncharged tRNA leaves from the E site as the ribosome moves one codon in the 5' direction. E) Charged amino acids are escorted to the A site of the ribosome by an initiation factor. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3) 3) Termination of translation requires GTP hydrolysis and direct interaction of a release factor with a termination codon. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 4) 4) Translation is an RNA - directed process whereby amino acids are specified by ________ on the mRNA, which are complementary to ________ on aminoacyl tRNAs. 5) 5) An ________ is a sequence within an mRNA that is bounded by stop and start codons that can be continuously translated. 6) 6) In the secondary structure of ribosomal RNA, the regions of self - complementarity are highly ________. 7) 7) The anticodon ends of tRNAs contact the ________ subunit and the acceptor ends contact the ________ subunit of the ribosome. 1

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    8) 8) Termination of translation occurs when a stop codon is translocated into the ________ site of the ribosome. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) 9) Which of the following BEST explains the "wobble" hypothesis proposed by Francis Crick? A) The genetic code is ambiguous in that each codon can specify more than one amino acid. B) The 5' base of the anticodon can make non Watson - Crick hydrogen bonds with several different bases at the 3' position of the codon. C) The anticodon can pair with any part of the corresponding codon. D) Inosine can pair up with A, U, or C. E) The genetic code is degenerate in that most amino acids have more than one codon. 10) 10) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The amino acid is attached at the 3' terminus of the tRNA. B) tRNA exhibits unusual base pairing including single bases pairing with two others. C) There does not need to be as many different tRNA types as there are codons. D) The 3D structures of all tRNA molecules are such that they fit equally well into the ribosome. E) The modified bases in the tRNAs are added during transcription. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 11) 11) The genetic code is universal for all organisms and organelles. 12) 12) Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetases do not contribute to the fidelity of translation. 13) 13) Peptide bond formation requires GTP hydrolysis. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 14) 14) Differences between eukaryote and prokaryote translation include the 40S ribosome recognizing the ________ rather than a Shine - Dalgarno sequence and the N - terminal amino acid is ________. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 15) 15) The bacterial Shine - Dalgarno sequence aligns the mRNA with the 16S rRNA to start translation at the correct position. 2

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    MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) 16) Antibiotics that inhibit translation are useful because: A) different antibiotics can inhibit different steps of translation. B) antibiotic resistance genes are often carried on plasmids rather than the bacterial chromosome. C) microorganisms can develop resistance to other antibiotics. D) they do not cross the cell membrane in higher animals. E) the translational machinery of eukaryotes is sufficiently different to that of bacteria. 17) 17) Which of the following applies only to prokaryotic proteins? A) Some proteins are synthesized on polyribosomes. B) Translation is coupled to transcription. C) Secreted proteins have signal sequences in their N - terminal regions. D) Some proteins are covalently modified after translation. E) Hydrophilic proteins are able to either traverse or become embedded in hydrophobic membranes. 18) 18) Which of the following BEST describes the transport of nuclear proteins across the nuclear membrane? A) A targeting sequence that interacts with a carrier protein B) An N - terminal targeting sequence that is cleaved during transport C) Simple diffusion D) Co - translational transport using ribosomes attached to the membrane E) Vesicular transport followed by delivery via fusion with the nuclear membrane 19) 19) Which of the following does NOT apply to proteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A) Signal recognition particle B) Vesicular transport C) Signal sequence cleavage D) Docking protein E) Continuous translation TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 20) 20) Glycosylated proteins are synthesized on rough endoplasmic reticulum. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 21) 21) Nuclear encoded proteins destined for ________, chloroplasts or nuclei are synthesized in the cytoplasm. 3

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    22) 22) The fusion of vesicles, from the Golgi complex, with specific membranes is facilitated by ________ protein pairs called t - SNARES and v - SNARES on membranes as well as cytosolic fusion proteins. 4

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED25 1) E 2) B 3) TRUE 4) codons, anticodons 5) open reading frame 6) conserved 7) small, large 8) A 9) B 10) E 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) 7 - methylguanine cap, methionine 15) TRUE 16) E 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) TRUE 21) mitochondria 22) complementary 5

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Each of the following is a noncovalent interaction EXCEPT: A) the interaction between an amino and a carboxylate group. B) a hydrogen bond. C) an interaction between N NH 3 + and a water molecule. D) a van der Waals interaction. E) a carbon - hydrogen bond. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 2) 2) The most important noncovalent interaction in biochemistry is the ________ bond. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) 3) Which of the following is FALSE when considering van der Waals interactions? A) The van der Waals radius represents the most stable distance between two interacting centers. B) They are not important in determining the stability of three - dimensional structures of proteins. C) Van der Waals radii can determine molecular surfaces. D) The total interaction energy is the sum of the attractive and repulsive forces. E) Molecules that interact by van der Waals forces do not interpenetrate. 4) 4) Which of the following in biological compounds are sufficiently electronegative to serve as strong donors in a hydrogen bond? A) Oxygen and nitrogen B) Hydrogen and oxygen C) Hydrogen and carbon D) Nitrogen and hydrogen E) Nitrogen and carbon TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 5) 5) Hydrogen bonds share features of both covalent and noncovalent bonds. 1

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    MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) 6) Which of the following is TRUE of hydrophobic molecules? A) Water forms a cage - like structure around them. B) They self - associate by releasing some of the surrounding water molecules. C) They have limited solubility in water. D) Dissolving in water decreases the entropy of the mixture. E) All of the above TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 7) 7) Water is both a hydrogen bond donor and acceptor. 8) 8) Amphipathic molecules are not able to interact via van der Waals forces. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 9) 9) Ionic compounds can be readily dissolved in water because the high dielectric constant of water screens and decreases the ________ force between the oppositely charged ions. 10) 10) The ________ describes the tendency for hydrophobic molecules to aggregate because of the exclusion of water with the consequent increase of entropy of the solvent. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 11) 11) Glycine cannot serve as a buffer because it has two ionizable groups. 12) 12) The average charge on an amino acid below its pI will be positive. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 13) 13) Calculate the acid dissociation constant K a of a 0.2 M solution of weak acid that is 0.1% ionized. 14) 14) Calculate the pH of a 0.1 M phosphate buffer (pKa = 6.86) that contains equal amounts of acid and conjugate base. 15) 15) Calculate the pH of a 0.2 M acetate buffer (pKa = 4.77) that contains twice as much acid as conjugate base. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 16) 16) The pK a of each amino acid residue in a protein will not be influenced by the adjacent residue. 2

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    SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 17) 17) Calculate the pH at the end of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction if it were carried out in a 0.1 M phosphate buffer, pH 6.86 and 0.005 M of acid was produced during the reaction? 18) 18) If hydroxide is added to an amino acid it will become increasingly ________ charged. 19) 19) Calculate the pH of a weak acid that is 0.2% ionized in a 0.2 M solution. 20) 20) The net charge on an amino acid at its isoelectric point (pI) is ________. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) 21) Many proteins interact with DNA at physiological pH because: A) both proteins and DNA are at their isoelectric points at physiological pH and tend to aggregate. B) proteins and DNA interact using mainly hydrophobic interactions. C) the positively charged DNA is electrostatically attracted to negatively charged regions on proteins. D) the negatively charged DNA is electrostatically attracted to positively charged regions on proteins. E) proteins are naturally attracted to DNA regardless of the pH. 22) 22) Small ions in biological fluids: A) encourage strong electrostatic interactions between oppositely charged macroions at low ionic strengths. B) encourage strong electrostatic interactions between oppositely charged macroions at high ionic strengths. C) have large effects on pH. D) have no effect on the interactions between oppositely charged macroions. E) tend to cluster around macroions of the same charge. 3

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED2 1) E 2) hydrogen 3) B 4) A 5) TRUE 6) E 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) electrostatic 10) hydrophobic effect 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) 2 × 10 - 7 14) 6.86 15) 4.47 16) FALSE 17) 6.77 18) negatively 19) 3.39 20) zero 21) D 22) A 4

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) In an open system energy can be converted from one form into another. B) In biochemical processes, energy can neither be created or destroyed. C) Organisms are open systems as they can exchange both energy and materials with their environments. D) Energy can be transferred between a system and the surroundings. E) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments. 2) 2) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The entropy of an isolated system will tend to increase to a maximum value. B) Biological systems are highly ordered so entropy changes are not relevant. C) Biological systems expend energy to overcome entropy. D) Entropy is a measure of disorder. E) The entropy of a biological system can decrease. 3) 3) A biochemical reaction will proceed in the direction as written if: A) P G = zero. B) P H < 0. C) P G < 0. D) P H > 0. E) P G > 0. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 4) 4) Life is an irreversible process, such that it never comes to equilibrium. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) 5) The equilibrium constant of a reaction: A) is the same as the mass action ratio when the reaction is displaced from equilibrium. B) is not related to the change in free energy of the reaction. C) can change if the concentration of reactants and products are changed. D) cannot be used to determine whether a reaction will proceed in the direction as written under non - standard conditions. E) is related to the change in free energy of the reaction. 1

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    TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 6) 6) The change in enthalpy ( P H ) for the complete oxidation of a fatty acid is different depending on whether it occurs via a biochemical pathway or combustion to CO 2 and H 2 O. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 7) 7) A reaction at its lowest energy state for the system and with equal rates in the forward and reverse directions is said to be at ________. 8) 8) A reaction at equilibrium can be driven in one direction or the other by changing the ________ of reactants or products. 9) 9) A thermodynamically unfavorable reaction can become favorable if the mass action ratio is ________ than the equilibrium mass action ratio. 10) 10) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the enzymatic hydrolysis of 0.1 M glucose - 6 - phosphate to glucose and inorganic phosphate given that 0.05% of the original glucose - 6 - phosphate remained after reaching equilibrium and the activity of water is unity. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) The P G o of a reaction: 11) A) is not related to the equilibrium constant. B) will change if the temperature of the reaction is changed. C) will change if the concentration of reactants and products are changed. D) can predict whether a reaction will be thermodynamically favorable under standard conditions. E) can be used to calculate whether a reaction is thermodynamically favorable under defined non - standard conditions. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 12) Calculate the P G H ' for the reaction fructose - 6 - phosphate  glucose - 6 - phosphate given the equilibrium constant is 1.97 and the physiological relevant temperature is 37 H C. 12) TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 13) 13) A thermodynamically unfavorable reaction can become favorable when coupled to a highly endergonic reaction. 2

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    14) 14) A reaction with a large negative free energy of hydrolysis can be coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and P i . 15) 15) In a general redox reaction, the reductant becomes oxidized and the oxidant becomes reduced. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 16) 16) The standard reduction potential is a measure of the ability of a reductant to ________ an electron. 17) 17) The standard reduction potentials for the following reactions are given below. Pyruvate + 2H + + 2e -  lactate E H = - 0.190 V NAD + + 2H + + 2e -  NADH/H + E H = - 0.320V. Calculate P G H for the overall spontaneous reaction making use of the relationship between P E H and P G H . 3

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3 1) E 2) B 3) C 4) TRUE 5) E 6) FALSE 7) equilibrium 8) concentration 9) less 10) 199.8 11) E 12) - 1.75kJ/mol 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) lose 17) - 25kJ/mol 4

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) The difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide is: A) a phosphodiester bond. B) methylated cytosine. C) the presence of uracil. D) a 2' N H group. E) a phosphate group. 2) 2) Which statement is CORRECT? A) Both phosphodiester and glycosidic bonds in RNA and DNA are hydrolyzed in acid solution. B) Both RNA and DNA are hydrolyzed in mild alkaline solution. C) RNA is not hydrolyzed in mild alkaline solution. D) DNA is more unstable when dehydrated than when in solution E) Both A and B TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3) 3) Nucleotides are all weak acids. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 4) 4) The nucleotide sequence of a polynucleotide chain is called the ________ structure. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) 5) Which of the following does NOT describe the secondary structure of DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick? A) The two strands of the double helix are stabilized by hydrogen - bonding between A and T and between G and C. B) The base pairs are stacked on one other with their planes at 180 o to the helix axis. C) The distance between the 1' carbons of the deoxyribose units is the same between the A - T and the G - C base pair. D) The two strands of the double helix run in opposite directions. E) The phosphate deoxyribose backbones of the helix are on the outside. 1

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    TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 6) 6) An important observation that assisted in the elucidation of the secondary structure of DNA was that the mole percent adenine was almost always the same as the mole percent of thymine. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 7) 7) The mode of replication of DNA is BEST described as ________. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8) 8) Which of the following statements about nucleic acid secondary structure is FALSE? A) DNA can form cruciform structures at palindromic sequences. B) The width of the major and minor grooves is more equal in the A - from of DNA than in the B - form. C) The A - form of DNA exists at high humidity, whereas the B - form exists at low humidity. D) Triple helices and G - quadruplexes can form at specific sequences in DNA. E) Some nucleic acids can form a zig - zag structure or Z form. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 9) 9) Supercoiled DNA has a lower mobility than relaxed DNA with the same number of base pairs when subjected to gel electrophoresis. 10) 10) Single - stranded RNA molecules can have extensive regions of intramolecular base pairing leading to defined secondary and tertiary structure. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 11) 11) DNA in vivo is normally ________ supercoiled. 12) 12) Calculate the superhelix density of a circular DNA molecule with 210 base pairs and two negative supercoils, assuming that there are 10.5 bp per turn of the double helix. 13) 13) Calculate the linking number in vivo for a plasmid that is 4200 bp in size if there is normally 1 negative supercoil in every 20 base pairs of a circular DNA. Assume there are 10.5 bp per turn of the double helix. 14) 14) Nucleic acids absorb light strongly in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum because they have ________ double - bond systems. 15) 15) The melting temperature of DNA ________ with increasing G plus C content. 2

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    16) 16) Expression of genetic information involves first ________ then ________. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) 17) Restriction endonucleases are useful in gene cloning because: A) they all make 5' phosphate extensions and recessed 3' OH groups that can be rejoined by DNA ligase. B) they can cut DNA at specific sequences. C) they can join DNA molecules that have been cut at specific sequences. D) they all make cohesive ends when they cut DNA. E) they can both cut and rejoin DNA molecules. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 18) 18) Viral genomes cannot be used as vectors for making recombinant DNA molecules. 19) 19) Dideoxynucleotide sequence analysis is a template - directed method that makes use of chain terminators that stop DNA synthesis because they lack a 2'OH group. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) 20) Which of the following is a feature of X - diffraction? A) Scattered radiation from repeating units in a structure will be strengthened by interference. B) The wavelength of radiation used to generate diffraction patterns must be slightly longer than the spacings between the repeating units of the structure. C) Scattered radiation from repeating units in a structure will be weakened by interference. D) Short spacings in repeating structures will result in short spacings in diffraction patterns. E) Radiation passing through a structure will be scattered only if the structure contains repeating units. 3

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED4 1) E 2) A 3) FALSE 4) primary 5) B 6) TRUE 7) semiconservative 8) C 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) negatively 12) - 0.1 13) 190 14) conjugated 15) increases 16) transcription, translation 17) B 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) A 4

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) 1) Which of the following amino acids would most likely be found on the surface of a protein? A) Valine B) Aspartic acid C) Leucine D) Phenylalanine E) Proline TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2) 2) Protein biosynthesis uses only L - amino acids. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 3) 3) All amino acids have a chiral ΅ - carbon EXCEPT ________. 4) 4) The side chain of ________ has a pKa in the physiological pH range and is therefore often involved in proton transfer during enzymatic catalysis. 5) 5) At physiological pH, the carboxylic acid group of an amino acid will be ________, while the amino group will be ________, yielding the zwitterion form. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 6) 6) At pH = 0, the net charge on a polypeptide will be negative. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) 7) Which of the following modified amino acids is incorporated during translation rather than being modified post - translationally? A) · - carboxyglutamate B) N - Ή - acetyllysine C) 4 - hydroxyproline D) Phosphoserine E) Selenocysteine 1

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    SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 8) 8) An amide bond between the ΅ - carboxylic acid group of one amino acid and the ΅ - amino group on another is called a ________. 9) 9) The chemical ________ can cleave amide bonds on the C - terminal side of methionine residues. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) 10) Which of the following is FALSE when considering the standard genetic code? A) AUG serves as the translation start codon in most cases. B) There are 64 possible codons to represent 20 common amino acids. C) Apart from methionine, the only other amino acid with a single codon is tryptophan. D) Three separate codons encode translation stop signals. E) Each of the three stop codons can also encode rare modified amino acids. 11) 11) Which of the following statements about insulin is INCORRECT? A) The leader sequence is cleaved off after membrane transport. B) The disulphide bonds form after the final proteolytic cleavage to yield mature insulin. C) It is stored in the pancreas in an inactive form. D) It is synthesized as a random coil single chain on membrane - bound ribosomes. E) In the active form it has two polypeptide chains joined by disulphide bonds. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 12) 12) Most proteins have blocked amino and carboxyl terminals. 13) 13) Conservative amino acid changes never affect stability or function of a protein. 14) 14) When referring to the amino acid sequences of proteins, sequence homology is the same as sequence similarity. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 15) 15) Several homologous proteins can be aligned to provide a ________ sequence. 16) 16) Recombinant proteins containing a ________ can be purified using immobilized metal affinity chromatography and eluted by the addition of imidazole, a low pH buffer or a buffer containing EDTA. 2

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    MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) 17) Applications of mass spectrometry include: A) detection of post - translational modifications on proteins. B) determination of the mass of a protein. C) determining the primary structure of proteins. D) A and B. E) A, B, and C. TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 18) 18) In size exclusion chromatography, the smallest proteins are eluted last. SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 19) 19) ________ chromatography is used to separate proteins based on their surface charge. 3

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    Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED5 1) B 2) TRUE 3) glycine 4) histidine 5) deprotonated, protonated 6) FALSE 7) E 8) peptide bond 9) cyanogen bromide 10) E 11) B 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) consensus 16) his - tag, or hexahistidine - tag 17) E 18) TRUE 19) Ion exchange 4

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