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Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office 6th Edition Test Bank

Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office 6th Edition Test Bank is a detailed collection of real exam questions and answers to make your preparation easier.

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 1: Introduction MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Factors that may increase the likelihood of a life - threatening emergency in the dental office include: a. a pretreatment physical evaluation of each patient b. therapeutic advances in the medical profession c. a medical history questionnaire d. modifications in dental treatment to minimize medical risks 2. McCarthy has estimated that through the effective implementation of stress reduction procedures, all but about __% of life - threatening situations in the dental office can be prevented. a. 40 b. 30 c. 25 d. 20 e. 10 3. An entirely stress induced emergency situation that does not involve pre - existing medical conditions: a. vasodepressor syncope b. most acute cardiovascular emergencies c. seizures d. bronchospasm (asthma) 4. The most commonly reported emergency in private practice dentistry is: a. hyperventilation b. syncope c. postural hypotension d. asthmatic attack (bronchospasm) 5. According to Matsuura, when do most emergency situations related to dentistry occur? a. In the waiting room before treatment b. during or immediately following administration of local anesthetic c. during dental treatment

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    d. in the office, but after treatment is completed e. at home after treatment 6. The dental treatment most commonly performed at the time of an emergency complication is: a. apicoectomy b. pulp extirpation c. tooth preparation d. tooth extraction 7. Each year in the United States, 10% of all nonaccidental deaths occur suddenly and unexpectedly in relatively young persons believed to be in good health. The usual cause is: a. stroke b. cardiac dysrhythmia c. acute myocardial infarction d. hepatic lipidosis 8. McCarthy estimates that _________ treatment - related deaths will occur throughout the career of the typical dental practitioner. a. one or two b. four c. a half - dozen d. sixteen 9. Monitoring of which of the following major organ systems in older patients is of particular significance for the dental practitioner? a. hepatic b. renal c. pulmonary d. central nervous e. cardiovascular 10. The leading cause of death in persons over 65 years in the United States is: a. malignant neoplasms b. cerebrovascular diseases c. diseases of the heart d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease e. pneumonia and influenza

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 2 : Prevention MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dyspnea is: a. difficulty swallowing b. an abnormal heart rhythm c. labored breathing at rest d. an electrolyte imbalance 2. Dental treatment should be postponed for _______ following a myocardial infarction. a. 2 weeks b. 1 month c. 6 weeks d. 6 months 3. When a patient reports a history of scarlet fever: a. premedication prior to dental treatment involving bleeding is invariably required b. cardiovascular sequelae such as valvular damage is a common outcome c. it was produced by group A α - hemolytic streptococci d. without negative permanent sequelae they are considered an ASA I risk if all other history factors are negative 4. According to the author, when a patient reports having a heart pacemaker: a. they never require premedication b. they always require premedication c. the dentist should consult with the patient’s primary care physician d. the dentist should consult with the patient’s cardiologist or cardiothoracic surgeon 5. The term “brain attack” is used by the lay press to mean a/an: a. epileptic seizure b. stroke c. diabetic coma d. episode of orthostatic hypotension 6. A dentist should use caution when prescribing ________________ . 1. epinephrine to hyperthyroid patients

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    2. epinephrine to hypothyroid patients 3. CNS depressants to hyperthyroid patients 4. CNS depressants to hypothyroid patients a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 7. Patients who are HIV positive are considered ASA __ risks depending on the progress of the infection. a. II, III, IV, or V b. III, IV or V c. IV or V d. V 8. A patient who reports orthopnea on the medical history probably suffers from: a. hypothyroidism b. anorexia c. congestive heart failure d. asthma 9. A blood pressure cuff placed too tightly will result in an erroneous _____________ blood pressure reading. a. depressed diastolic b. elevated diastolic c. depressed systolic d. elevated systolic 10. Pulsations of a mercury column or the needle on an aneroid manometer are observed approximately _________ the initial Korotkoff sounds are heard. a. 10 to 15 mm Hg before b. 10 to 15 mm Hg after c. 30 to 35 mm Hg before d. 30 to 35 mm Hg after 11. An asymptomatic hypothyroid patient is ASA category: a. I b. II c. III d. IV

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    12. An adult with blood pressure of 130/65 mm Hg is ASA category: a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V 13. An adult with blood pressure of 205/97 mm Hg is ASA category: a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 3 : Preparation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The author of the text recommends that each dentist: a. purchase a stock, commercially available emergency kit b. select items for the emergency kit based on that doctor’s training in emergency medicine c. rely upon physicians who are also dental patients for advice concerning contents of an emergency kit d. rely upon the local EMS team for provision of emergency medications 2. The new wonder drug, propothiopentabarbitaldiazicon, which successfully reverses any and all emergency situations that may ever occur, is marketed in a 1 - mL ampule as 80 mg/mL. What is the dose of this drug for a patient 25 years of age? a. 10 mg b. 20 mg c. 40 mg d. 80 mg e. 160 mg 3. The new wonder drug, propothiopentabarbitaldiazicon, which successfully reverses any and all emergency situations that may ever occur, is marketed in a 1 - mL ampule as 80 mg/mL. What is the dose of this drug for a patient 6 months of age? a. 10 mg b. 20 mg c. 40 mg d. 80 mg e. 160 mg 4. Which of the following sites for injection of emergency drugs provides the most effective and rapid uptake? a. intramuscular route into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh b. intramuscular route into the mid - deltoid region of the upper arm c. intramuscular route into the upper outer quadrant of the gluteal region d. intralingual injection into the body of the tongue

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    5. The author recommends that only __________ be available in a preloaded syringe for an emergency kit in a typical dental office. a. hydrocortisone (Solu - Cortef) b. epinephrine c. diazepam (Valium) d. diphenhydramine 6. Which of the following is considered to be an essential (module 1) emergency drug? a. anticonvulsant b. antihypertensive c. histamine - blocker d. opioid antagonist e. aromatic ammonia 7. The single most important step in the management of all emergency situations, without exception, is: a. administration of oxygen b. summoning EMS c. administration of aromatic ammonia d. basic life support, as needed e. none of the above 8. What fraction of an adult emergency drug dose should be administered to an 8 - month - old male? a. 10% of the adult dose b. 25% of the adult dose c. 50% of the adult dose d. 75% of the adult dose e. 100% of the adult dose 9. What fraction of an adult emergency drug dose should be administered to an 8 - year - old female? a. 10% of the adult dose b. 25% of the adult dose c. 50% of the adult dose d. 75% of the adult dose e. 100% of the adult dose 10. The proprietary name for epinephrine is: a. Valium b. Vasoxyl

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    c. Ventolin d. Nitro - stat e. not listed 11. The proprietary name for albuterol is: a. Solu - Cortef b. Wyamine c. Ventolin d. Nitro - stat e. not listed 12. Which of the following is an antidotal drug for the reversal of a benzodiazepine - induced overdose? a. flumazenil b. aromatic ammonia c. meperidine d. oxygen e. naloxone 13. When injectable drugs are unavailable, which of the following basic emergency drugs may be administered sublingually or transmucosally to manage life - threatening elevations in blood pressure? a. diazoxide (Hyperstat) b. propranolol (Inderal) c. nifedipine (Procardia) d. nitroglycerin (Nitrolingual spray) e. metoprolol (Lopressor)

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 4 : Medicolegal Considerations MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following dental scenarios would most likely lead to the largest legal judgment? a. temporary paresthesia b. broken needle c. permanent cosmetic injury d. brain damage from improperly administered CPR during cardiac arrest 2. Plantiffs’ attorneys are usually hired on a ______________ basis, while defense attorneys are hired on a ___________ basis. a. contingency fee; hourly b. contingency fee; contingency fee c. hourly; contingency fee d. hourly; hourly 3. The dentist must file an answer to a complaint or summons within _____ or risk a default judgment. a. 24 hours b. 7 days c. 2 weeks d. 30 days 4. After the dentist’ s attorney has filed an answer to a complaint, a process known as __________ begins. a. a trial b. discovery c. a deposition d. a tort 5. The Latin phrase res ipsa loquitur means: a. the captain of the ship b. the thing speaks for itself c. relating to criminal law d. relating to civil law

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    6. According to the text: a. negligence is doing something that an ordinary prudent dentist would not do under the same or similar circumstances b. negligence and malpractice are not to be used synonymously in lawsuits against health care providers c. negligence is not doing something that a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances d. A, B, and C e. A and C 7. Dentists should require that patients update their medical history forms: a. every 3 months b. every 6 months c. annually d. only at the time of their initial appointment 8. The more thorough a dentist i s in warning patients about possible risks, the more prepared that dentist should be to prevent or treat those risks. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true 9. Which of the following statements is true of Good Samaritan statutes? a. A national standard has been adopted, meaning Good Samaritan standards are uniform for all states b. A patient who suffers a medical emergency in a dental office falls under protection of the Good Samaritan statute c. A nonpatient of the dentist, who happens to be in the waiting room and requires an emergency response, may fall under protection of the Good Samaritan statute d. Good Samaritan statutes are considered obsolete 10. Proactive measures for legal protection include: a. practicing within the standard of reasonableness b. maintaining continuing dental education c. documenting office procedures and patient charts d. A, B, and C e. A and C

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 5: Unconsciousness: General Considerations MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following steps should come last in management of unconsciousness? a. P — position b. A — airway c. B — breathing d. C — circulation e. D — definitive care 2. Which of the following is the most common cause of loss of consciousness in the dental environment? a. seizures b. orthostatic hypertension c. hyperventilation d. vasodepressor syncope e. acute adrenal insufficiency 3. Which of the following is a cardiogenic cause of syncope? a. carotid sinus disease b. pulmonary embolism c. pheochromocytoma d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4. Which of the following is not one of the three major categories of drugs used in dentistry? a. analgesics b. antianxiety agents c. antiinflammatory agents d. antibiotics 5. Most adverse reactions to local anesthetics are: a. emboli in the brain or heart b. stress induced c. overdose reactions d. allergy

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    6. _______________ is the most common mechanism producing syncope. a. Transient ischemia b. Bradycardia c. Cerebral anoxia d. Tardive dyskinesia 7. __________ is the most common cause of loss of consciousness in humans. a. Hypotension b. Blunt force trauma c. Tachypnea d. Opioid overdose 8. Physiologic disturbances that decrease the blood supply to the brain include: a. constriction of the peripheral arterioles b. an increase in cardiac output c. failure of normal peripheral vasoconstrictor activity d. dilation of cerebral vessels as carbon dioxide is lost through hyperventilation 9. The human brain uses about __% of the total glucose the body consumes. a. 2 b. 20 c. 65 d. 90 10. The unconscious victim should be positioned: a. in the Trendelenburg position b. with the brain below the heart c. with the feet elevated slightly (a 10 - to 15 - degree angle) d. with pillows under the head 11. The only sign of adequate ventilation after performing head tilt – chin lift is: a. hearing and feeling air against your (the rescuer's) cheek b. seeing the victim’s chest rise with each ventilation c. observing respiratory monitoring devices d. all of the above are signs of adequate ventilation 12. Which of the following sounds associated with partial airway obstruction is cause for use of positive - pressure oxygen? a. snoring

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    b. gurgling c. wheezing d. crowing

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    Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6 th Edition Test Bank Chapter 6: Vasodepressor Syncope MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is the most commonly observed emergency situation in dentistry? a. cardiac arrest b. mild (non – life - threatening) allergy c. angina pectoris d. seizures e. vasodepressor syncope 2. Which of the following groups of people are most likely to experience vasodepressor syncope? a. young women (18 to 35) b. young men (18 to 35) c. elderly women (over 70) d. elderly men (over 70) 3. Which of the following is most likely to be encountered as a cause of unconsciousness in a 24 - year - old male patient? a. adrenocorticosteroid deficiency b. lack of oxygen c. hyperglycemia d. cerebrovascular accident e. cardiac arrest 4. “ Healthy children do not faint.” They hide their fears. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true. 5. Prodromal manifestations of vasodepressor syncope include: a. a cool feeling in the neck and face b. erythema or flush color c. significantly increased heart rate d. significantly increased blood pressure

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    6. ___________ is associated with early presyncope and _________ is associated with late presyncope. a. Tachycardia; tachycardia b. Bradycardia; bradycardia c. Tachycardia; bradycardia d. Bradycardia; tachycardia 7. What is the immediate precipitating cause of loss of consciousness in vasodepressor syncope? a. increased CO 2 level in blood b. decrease in the rate of respiration c. rapid rise in blood pressure d. hyperventilation e. bradycardia 8. The first step in the management of a patient who “collapses” at the sight of a dental needle is: a. administer oxygen via a face mask b. position the patient supine with feet elevated c. administer aromatic ammonia d. place patient in Trendelenburg position e. administer oxygen via nasal hood 9. In the unconscious patient who fails to regain consciousness rapidly after proper positioning, which of the following is strongly recommended? a. activation of EMS b. administration of IV dextrose c. administration of nitroglycerin d. administration of “sugar” via the appropriate route e. administration of diazepam 10. After recovering from a period of syncope, the victim should: a. complete the dental treatment planned for that day b. not undergo additional dental treatment the rest of that day c. drive himself or herself to a physician d. drive himself or herself home

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