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CCNA Basic Questions

This CCNA quiz covers key networking topics: MAC address structure, collision and broadcast domains, IOS storage limits, MTU meaning, Ethernet duplex modes, and CSMA/CD. It reinforces foundational concepts essential for Cisco certification success.

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    CCNA - Basic Questions Question 1 What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called? A. NIC B. BIA C. GUI D. VAI Answer: C Explanation Organizational Unique Identifier (GUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device, which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE). This identifier uniquely identifies a vendor, manufacturer, or an organization. Question 2 Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two) A. There are two broadcast domains in the network. B. There are four broadcast domains in the network. C. There are six broadcast domains in the network. D. There are four collision domains in the network. E. There are five collision domains in the network. F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

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    Answer: A F Explanation Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from eO interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from el interface to the right is another broadcast domain -> A is correct. Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router (because hub doesn't break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from el interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) -> F is correct. Question 3 Refer to the exhibit: System flash director File Length Name/status 1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-l.XB [3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total] 8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write) The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash? A. 3MB B. 5MB C. 7MB D. 4MB Answer: D Explanation From the exhibit we learn there are 4585552 bytes (over 4MB) available so it is only enough space for an IOS file of 4MB. If bigger file is copied then the existing IOS file will be erased (overwritten). Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

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    Routers show interfaces etne met o EhierneEO is up, line protocol is up Hardware is QUICC Ethernet, address is 00c0.ab73 dead (bia 001D.7bcc 7321) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit. DLY 1000 usee, reliability 255/255, txtoad 1/255, rxioad 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA. loopbacK not set Keepalive set (10 sec) <oulpul omitted* ______________________________________________ A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500. B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. Answer: E Explanation The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the layer can pass onwards. Question 5 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. Answer: C Explanation Modem Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub). Question 6 In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)

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    A. when they receive a special token B. when there is a carrier C. when they detect no other devices are sending D. when the medium is idle E. when the server grants access Answer: C D Explanation Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination. If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit. When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode. So we can see C and D are the correct answers. But in fact —answer C when they detect no other devices are sending! and —when the medium is idle! are nearly the same. Question 7 For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two) A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown Answer: A E Explanation Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2 -> A is correct. MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct; E is correct. Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains physical address -> C is not correct.

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    On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default -> D is not correct. All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate -> F is not correct. Question 8 Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two) A. RAM B. NVRAM C. flash memory D. HTTP server E. TFTP server F. Telnet server Answer: C E Explanation The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image: + Flash (the default location) + TFTP server + ROM (used if no other source is found) Question 9 What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem? A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line. Answer: D Question 10 A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

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    A. It checks the configuration register B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server C. It loads the first image file in flash memory D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions Answer: A Explanation When you turn the router on, it runs through the following boot process. The Power-On Self Test (POST) checks the router's hardware. When the POST completes successfully, the System OK LED indicator comes on. The router checks the configuration register to identify where to load the IOS image from. A setting of 0x2102 means that the router will use information in the startup-config file to locate the IOS image. If the startup-config file is missing or does not specify a location, it will check the following locations for the IOS image: 1. Flash (the default location) 2. TFTP server 3. ROM (used if no other source is found) The router loads the configuration file into RAM (which configures the router). The router can load a configuration file from: + NVRAM (startup-configuration file) + TFTP server If a configuration file is not found, the router starts in setup mode.

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    CCNA - OSI & TCP/IP Model Question 1 Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model? A. application B. internet C. network D. transport Answer: B Explanation The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing decision. Application Layer Application Layer Presentation Layer Session Layer Transport Layer Transport Layer Internet Layer Network Layer Network Access Layer Data Link Layer Physical Layer TCP/IP OSI Question 2 Refer to exhibit. Router#show running-config Building configuration... Current configuration : 659 bytes ! version 12.4 no service timestamps log datetime msec no service timestamps debug datetime msec

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    service password-encryption ! hostname Router i enable secret 5 $l$mERr$hx5rVt7rPNoS4wqbXKX7mO ! interface FastEthemetO/O ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip access-group 101 in duplex auto speed auto ! access- list 101 deny tcp any any eq 22 access- list 101 permit ip any any line con 0 password 7 0822455D0A16 login line vty 0 4 login line vty 5 14 login f end A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure? A. A Level 5 password is not set. B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access. C. The vty password is missing. D. The console password is missing. Answer: C Question 3 Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two) A. the amount of available ROM B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router D. show version E. show processes F. show running-config

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    Answer: B D Explanation When upgrading new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have to check if the Flash has enough memoiy or not. Also running the new IOS may require more RAM than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the —show version! command. Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem? O p i n g 10.10.10.1 Pinging 10.10.10.1 with 32 bytes of data: Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Ping statistics for 10.10.10.1: Packets: sent - 4, Received = 0, Lost - 4 (100% loss) A. data link layer B. application layer C. access layer D. session layer E. network layer Answer: E Explanation The Network layer is responsible for network addressing and routing through the internetwork. So a ping fails, you may have an issue with the Network layer (although lower layers like Data Link & Physical may cause the problem). Question 5 At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 5

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    Answer: A Question 6 Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two) A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. Answer: A D Explanation The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival. The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part. -> A is correct. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) to the packet (on Layer 3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct. Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer encapsulates messages received from higher layers by placing them into datagrams (also called packets) with a network layer header -> C is not correct. The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately. -> D is correct. The Physical layer (presentation layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link -> E is not correct.

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    Question 7 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport E. internet F. data link Answer: A Explanation FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model. Question 8 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. data link B. network C. physical D. transport Answer: A Question 9 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A. transport B. network C. presentation D. session E. application Answer: E Question 10

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    A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen? A. session B. network C. physical D. data link E. transport Answer: D Explanation When using the term —frame! we can easily recognize it belongs to the Data Link layerJn this layer, an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field is added to the frame to verify that the frame data is received correctly. CCNA - IOS Questions Question 1 Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords? A. Router# service password-encryption B. Router(config)# password-encryption C. Router(config)# service password-encryption D. Router# password-encryption Answer: C Question 2 What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two) A. Administratively shut down the interface. B. Physically secure the interface. C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command. D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process. E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

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    Answer: D E Explanation It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct. We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is —virtually B is not correct. To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the —accessdassll command. The —acces groupll command is only used to apply an access list to a phys ical interface -> C is not correct; E is correct. The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct. Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server? Router# copy tftp flash Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.2.167 Source filename []? cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin Destination filename [cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin]? Accessing tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin... Erasing flash before copying? [confirm] Erasing the flash filesystem will remove all files! continue? [confinn] Erasing device Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee ...erased Erase of flash: complete Loading cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin from 192.168.2.167 (via EthemetO): !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! [OK - 6888962/13777920 bytes] verifying checksum... OK (0x7BF3) 6888962 bytes copied in 209.920 secs (32961 bytes/sec) Router# A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image. C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog. D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash. Answer: C

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    Explanation During the copy process, the router asked —Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]II and the administrator confirmed (by pressing Enter) so the flash was deleted. Note: In this case, the flash has enough space to copy a new IOS without deleting the current one. The current IOS is deleted just because the administrator wants to do so. If the flash does not have enough space you will see an error message like this: %Error copying tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin (Not enough space on device) Question 4 How does using the service password encryption command on a router provide additional security? A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router Answer: B Explanation By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your configuration file. Question 5 What is a global command? A. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status B. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols D. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router Answer: E

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    Explanation A global command is a command in this form: Device(config)# This mode can affect the entire router/switch. For more information about modes in Cisco devices, please read my Cisco Command Line Interface CLI tutorial. Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. line vty 0 4 password 7 030752180599 login transport input ssh What is the effect of the configuration that is shown? A. It configures SSH globally for all logins. B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that foils to use Telnet. C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500. D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports. E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown. Answer: D Question 7 Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three) A. ping B. tracert C. ipconfig D. show ip route E. winipcfg F. show interfaces Answer: A D F

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    Explanation The ping command can be used to test if the local device can reach a specific destination -> A is correct. —tracertll is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands, the correct command should be —traceroutell-> B is not correct. The ipconfig command is not a valid command in Cisco IOS too -> C is not correct. The —show ip routell command can be used to view the routing table of the router. It is a very useful command to find out many connectivity problems (like directly connected networks, learned network via routing protocols...) -> D is correct. —winipcfgll is an old tool in Windows 95/98 to view IP settings of the installed network interfaces. But it is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands -> E is not correct. The —show interfacesll command is used to check all the interfaces on the local device only. It has very limited information to trouble LAN connectivity problem but it is the most reasonable to choose -> F is acceptable. Question 8 Which command shows your active Telnet connections? A. show sessions B. show cdp neighbors C. show users D. show queue Answer: A Question 9 Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? A. enable cdp B. cdp enable C. cdp run D. run cdp Answer: C Question 10

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    A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the confguration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? A. service password-encryption access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 line vty 0 4 login password cisco access-class 1 B. enable password secret line vty 0 login password cisco C. service password-encryption line vty 1 login password cisco D. service password-encryption line vty 0 4 login password cisco Answer: C Question 11 What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? A. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. B. Only the enable password will be encrypted. C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords. Answer: E Explanation The secret password (configured by the command —enable secret —) is always encrypted even if the —service passwordbncryptionll command is not used. Moreover, the secret password is not removed from the configuration with this command, we still see it in encrypted form in the running-config -> D is not correct.

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    The —enable password II does not encrypt the password and can be viewed in clear text in the running-config. By using the —servictpassword-encryptionll command, that password is encrypted (both current and future passwords) -> A is not correct, E is correct. Answer B - Only the enable password will be encrypted seems to be correct but it implies the secret password will not be encrypted and stay in clear text, which is not correct. For your information, the secret password is encrypted with MD5 one-way hash algorithm which is harder to break than the encryption algorithm used by the —service passwordmcryptionll command. CCNA - WAN Questions Question 1 Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options? A. NCP B. ISDN C. SUP D. LCP E. DLCI Answer: D Question 2 A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection? A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut

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    D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-il)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut Answer: B Question 3 Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two) A. PPP B. WAP C. DSL D. L2TPv3 E. Ethernet Answer: A C Question 4 Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms? A. HDLC B. PPP C. X.25 D. Frame Relay Answer: B Explanation PPP supports both synchronous (like analog phone lines) and asynchronous circuits (such as ISDN or digital links). With synchronous circuits we need to use clock rate. Note: Serial links can be synchronous or asynchronous. Asynchronous connections used to be only available on low-speed (<2MB) serial interfaces, but now, there are the new HWICs (High-Speed WAN Interface Cards) which also support asynchronous mode. To learn more about them please visit http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps5949/ps6182/prod_qas0900aecd80274424.ht ml. Question 5

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    Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a serial interface? A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp Answer: C Explanation The command —ppp authentication chap papll command indicates the CHAP authentication is used first. If it fails or is rejected by other side then uses PAP instead. If you want to use PAP first (then CHAP) you can use the —ppp authentication pap chap II command. Question 6 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.) A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop B. A modem terminates a digital local loop C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop D. A modem terminates an analog local loop E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device Answer: A D E Explanation The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network's DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE -connected interface (the router's serial interface).

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    DCE nr Frame Rt-lay Swilrh Question 7 Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two) A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake. B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake. C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment. D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext. E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment. F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks. Answer: B C CCNA - Switch Questions Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1* show mac address-table Dynamic Addresses Count: SeL-ure Addresses (User-del inert) Count; Static Addresses (User-defined) Count: System Self Addresses Count: Total Mac addresses: 3 0 0 41 50 Destination Port Non-static Address Table: Destination Address Address Type VLAN 0010.0de0.e289 Dynamic 1 Fa tit F.then ietO/1 0010.7b00.1540 Dynamic 2 FastEtheriietO/3 0010.7b00.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthcmetO/2

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    Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data? A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address. B. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway. C. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated. D. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated. Answer: C Explanation The MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4 has not been learned in its MAC address table so Switch-1 will broadcast the frame out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated. Question 2 Workstation A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? A. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown B. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown C. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

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    SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown D. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown Answer: B Explanation To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure). In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default gateway. This default gateway is used to foiward traffic originating from the switch only, not to forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch. Question 3 A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthemet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? A. More collision domains will be created. B. IP address utilization will be more efficient. C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously. D. An additional broadcast domain will be created. Answer: D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)

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    Router A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure the switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables. Answer: B D F Explanation The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check cable type, power and how they are plugged in. Question 5 Refer to the exhibit.

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    What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two) A. The number of collision domains would remain the same. B. The number of collision domains would decrease. C. The number of collision domains would increase. D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same. E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease. F. The number of broadcast domains would increase. Answer: C D Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be? SwitchC show interface faO/1 FastEthemetO/1 is up, line protocol is up (connected) Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0010.0000.5e03) MTV 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY lOOiisec reliabilitv 255/255, txload 14/255, rxload 14/255 Encapsulation ARFA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, lOOMbA, media type is W/lOOBaseTX input flow control is off, output flow control is unsupported «Text omitted» 5 minute input rate 364000 bsts/sec, 344 packets/sec 5 minute output rate, 367000 bits/sec, 0 no butter Received 1244 broadcasts (0 multicast) 0 runts, 3 giants, 0 throttles 741 input errors, 738 CKC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 1243 multicast, 0 pause input 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 16420 packets output, 2375034 bytes, 0 underruns «Text omitted» A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switches faO/1 port. B. Check the duplex mode for Switches faO/1 port. C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port. D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port. Answer: C

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    Question 7 Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three) A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address. C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information. D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains. F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information. Answer: ADE Question 8 Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address? A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table. C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame. D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing. E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch. Answer: C Question 9 Refer to the exhibit:

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    Switch!# show mac address-table System Self Addresses Count: ' l l Total MAC addresses: 50 Non- static Address Table: Destination Address AddressType VLAN Destination Port OOAO.OdeO.e289 Dynamic 1 FastEthemetO/l OOAQ.7bOO.15dO Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5 OOAO.7bOO.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5 00 A0.5c 74.0076 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/l QOAO.5cf4.0O77 Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1 OOAO.5cf4.1315 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/1 0OA0.7Ocb.f301 Dynamic 2 FastEthernetO/1 GOAO.7Ocb.3fOl Dynamic 5 FastEthem.etO/2 OOAO.le42.997S Dynamic 4 FastEthernetO/1 OOAO.le9f.39QO Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1 OOAD. 70cb.33fl Dynamic 6 Fasti’ t hernetO/3 OOAO.70cb.103f Dynamic 6 Fastf thernetO/4 co utput omitted:* Switchl#showcdp neighbors Capability Codes: R - Router, I - I rams Bridge, B- Source Rome Bridge S- Switch, It - Host, I - IGMP r r - Repeater Device ID Local Intrfce Hoidtime Capability Platform Port ID Switch2 Fas 0/1 157 5 2950-12 Fas 0/1 Switch3 Fas 0/2 143 5 2950-12 Fas 0/5 Switchl# Which two statements are tine of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two) A. Interface FastEthemetO/2 has been disabled. B. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthemetO/1. C. FastEthemetO/1 is configured as a trunk link. D. FastEthemetO/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards E. FastEthemetO/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernetO/5 Answer: C F Explanation

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    FastEthemetO/1 can receive traffic from multiple VLANs -> it is configured as a trunk. There are two MAC addresses learned from FastEthemetO/5 -> a hub is used on this port. Question 10 The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The administrator's attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings from host B to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue for this problem? FaCVO.l - 172,19,1.254'24 VLAN 1 FaO/032- 172.19.32.25'1'24 VLAN 32 FatV033- 172.19.33.254'24 VI.AN 33 Switchr show ip interlace briei Interface [P-Address OK? Method Status protocol Vian 1 172.19.1.250 Yes manual U F up FditElhenietD/1 urtassigned Yes unset up UP fastEthemetO/2 unassigned Yes unset up up FastEthemetO/3 unassigned Yes unset U P up Output A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet. B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned. C. The switch interface connected to the router is down. D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1. Answer: B Explanation Host A (172.19.1.1) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1.250) are in the same subnet so telnet from host A to the switch can be successful even if a default gateway is not set on host A. But host B (172.19.32.2) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1 .250) are not in the same subnet so host B needs a default gateway to telnet to the switch. The default gateway on host B should be 172.19.32.254.

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    CCNA - Switch Questions 2 Question 1 What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame? A. source MAC address B. source IP address C. source switch port D. destination IP address E. destination port address F. destination MAC address Answer: F Question 2 The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface FaO/O of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switchl to correct this problem? A. Switchl (config)# line conO Switchl (config-line)# password cisco Switchl (config-line)#login B. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1 Switch l(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0 C. Switchl (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1 D. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1 Switch l(config-if)# duplex full Switch 1(config-if)# speed 100 E. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1 Switch 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Answer: C Question 3 How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured on the switches?

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    H witch switch A. one B. six C. twelve D. two Answer: A Explanation Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1 broadcast domain. For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between hubs & switches + 1 collision between the two switches). Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

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    GO 0D:39: NEPRO I O-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on nterface Vian1 changed state to down GO 00:40: %SPANTREE-5-EXTENDED_SYSID Extended Sys Id enabled for type 4an 00 09:42: %SYS-5-C0NFIG_l: Configured from memory by console 00' 00:42: %SYS-5-RESTART: System re stared -- Cisco IOS Software C2960 Software (C296O LANEASEK9-M], Version 12 2(25] SEE 2 RELEASE SOFTWARE if cl) Copyright (c) 1986 2006 by Cisco Systems, Inc Compiled Fri 26- Ju 06 11 57 by yenanh 00 00:44’ 7- N|< 5 r.i IA NGED ■ fnre 4ac e Vian1 c hanged sta te To aomini strat ve ly dow n 00 CO 'To %; NK 3 : JPDOWN: nterface z asrEthernsrtYl , changed state to up 00.00:44 %L NK-3- UPDOWhl nterface -as tEtHernetCh , changed state ic up 00 00:44: 5t_ NK-3- LJPDOWN ntertace FastEthernetOf11 , changed state to up 00 00:45: %i. NEPRO I 0-5-UPD0WN Line protocol on nterface FastEthernettVI changed state to up 00 00:45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface l-s5tEthernetQ/2 ■■ .‘hanged state to up 00 00.45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. Line protocol on nterface l-astElhernetCVI 1, changed state to up 00 00.48. %L NK-3-UPDOWN. nterface ■ astEthemet0fl2, ctm-iged state to up 00 00.49: y c _ NEPRO! 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface r aslEif err etD/12, changed state ■ <; up A. As FastEthernetO/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP. B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change. C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch. D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP. Answer: B Explanation From the output we notice that the administrator has just shut down Interface Vlanl, which is the default VLAN so no one can access it remotely (like telnet) -> B is correct. Answer A is not correct as STP calculation does not depend on which port comes up first or last. STP recalculates when there is a change in the network. A normal switch can operate without VLAN -> C is not correct. This IOS does support VLAN because it has VLAN 1 on it -> D is not correct.

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    CCNA - VLAN Questions Question 1 What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three) A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains,thus increasing their size. C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient,thanks to 802. IQ trunks E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing their size. G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to the same broadcast domain. Answer: C E F Question 2 VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command interface configuration mode? A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat. B. The command is rejected. C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually. D. The port turns amber. Answer: A Explanation Even VLAN 3 is not yet configured on the switch, we can set the switchport access vlan 3 command without no problem and it also displays when we type the —show runningponfigll command. Question 3 What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three) A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks. B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

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    C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks. D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks. E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location. F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network. Answer: A E F Question 4 On corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches Answer: A Question 5 Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FaO/13. An 802. IQ trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario? A. 802. IQ giants frames could saturate the link. B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames. C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear. D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames. Answer: C Explanation

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    A —native VLAN mismatch! error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802. IQ link. —VLAN mismatch! can cause traffic from one vlan to leak ini another vlan. Question 6 Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three) A. They increase the size of collision domains. B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They can enhance network security. D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains. E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains. F. They simplify switch administration. Answer: BCE Explanation When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> A is not correct. VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> B is correct. VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the network -> C is correct. VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision domains -> D is not correct. VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> E is correct. VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration -> F is not correct. Question 7

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    Sir show interface trunk Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan. FaO/1 on 802, Iq Trunking 1 Port VLtns allowed a trunk FaO/1 1,1005 Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain FaO/1 12 S2#slupw interface trunk Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan FaO/1 on 802. Iq Trunking 2 Port Vlans allowed a trunk FaO/1 1.1005 Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain FaO/1 12 A frame from VLAN1 of switch SI is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What causes this behavior? A. trunk mode mismatches B. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet C. native vlan mismatches D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination. Answer: C Explanation For 802. Iq encapsulation, the native VLAN must matched at both side; otherwise the link will not work. In this case the native VLAN of SI is 1 while the native VLAN of S2 is 2. Question 8 Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? A. when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table. B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan. C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports. D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan.

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    Answer: B Explanation Answer A is not correct because when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, it always carries VLAN ID information in the VLAN tag portion so the switch does not need to look up its source MAC address table to determine the VLAN ID of that packet. Question 9 Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two) A. added security B. dedicated bandwidth C. provides segmentation D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces E. contains collisions Answer: A C Question 10 Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 2 through 1001 B. 1 through 1001 C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005 Answer: A Explanation VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed. VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can't be deleted or used for Ethernet.

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    CCNA - Trunking Questions Question 1 Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit: S w l l F shew vLui brief VLAN1 Name Status Ports 1 default actrVr W Marketing active Fa0/6. FaO/7, FaO/8, FaO/9 Fa0/l 0. FaO/U. Fa0/12, Fa 0/13 FaOrtl, Fafl/15 15 Accounting active FaO/lto, FaO,13. FaD/19, Fa0J20 FaO.'Zf.. FaO/22, FaO/24 20 Adnuii active FaO.T. FaO/2, FaO/3, FaO/4 FaOr'5 1002 fddi default active 1003 token nng default active 1004 iddinet default active 1005 tmet-defauit Switch active A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Swll are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Swl2. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem? A. The FaO/1 port is not operational on one of the switches. B. The Link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk. C. At lease one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate. D. Port FastEthemet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches. E. A router is required for hosts on Swll in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Swl2. Answer: B Explanation

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    The show vlan command only displays access ports, the trunk ports are not shown in this command (we can use the —show interface trunkll command to see trunked ports). In the output we can see the ports FaO/1 connecting between two switches in VLAN 20 -> they are access ports and only VLAN 20 can communicate. To make all VLANs can communicate (with the same VLAN at the other switch), the link between two switches must be set as trunk -> B is correct. Question 2 In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802. IQ standard describe? A. the operation of VTP B. a method of VLAN trunking C. an approach to wireless LAN communication D. the process for root bridge selection E. VLAN pruning Answer: B Question 3 As a network technician, do you know which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three) A. transparent B. auto C. on D. desirable E. blocking F. forwarding Answer: B C D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit:

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    SwitchA Switch B SltfitchA£ show niiiiLLrig-cujlfig Build Lng con h gi ir.it i on ... <3utpx.it omitted--' Current configuration: 100 bytes I interface FasEthemetO/24 switchport mode access no ip address l output omitted--- end SwitdlBi show nuuliilg-COufig Building configuration... Output omitted> Current configuration; IGO bytes I interface Fa3EthemetO/24 switchport mode access no ip address I output omitted 3 ’ end All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem? A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches. Answer: C Question 5 Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthemet? A. 802.3ad B. 802. Iw C. 802.1Q D. 802. Id

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    Answer: C Explanation Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802. IQ) to be used. Question 6 Which three of these statements regarding 802. IQ trunking are correct? (Choose three) A. 802. IQ native VLAN frames are untagged by default. B. 802. IQ trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802. IQ trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. D. 802. IQ trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. E. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends. Answer: ACE Question 7 Refer to the exhibit: Fa0/0,l - 172,19,1,254/24 VLAN 1 FaOfo.2 - 172.19.2, 25 L 21 VLAN 2 Fafl/0.3 - 172.193,15-1/24 VLAN 3 C-router is to be used as a —route-ion-a-stickll to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration? A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 B. No further routing configuration is required. C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

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    D. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 Answer: B Question 8 Refer to the exhibit: Switch! IP address: 192.168.1.2/24 Ports 2-12 VLAN 10 Ports 13-24 VLAN 20 Hout 1 Host 2 IP address: 192.168.10.5/24 IF address: 192.168.20.5/24 Detail It Gateway: 192,168 10.1 Detault Gateway; 192.168.20.1 What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two) A. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)#no shut down B. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0 Router(config-if)#no shutdown Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 10 Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-subif)#interface fastethemet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 20 Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. Router (config)#router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)#network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)#network 192.168.20.0

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    D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server E. Switch1(config) # interface fastEthemet 0/1 Switch l(config-if)# switchport mode trunk F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch l(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Answer: B E Question 9 Which two of these are characteristics of the 802. IQ protocol? (Choose two) A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network. B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame. C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes. D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. E. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames. Answer: D E Explanation IEEE 802. IQ is the networking standard that supports Virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network. It is a protocol that allows VLANs to communicate with one another using a router. 802.1 Q trunks support tagged and untagged frames. If a switch receives untagged frames on a trunk port, it believes that frame is a part of the native VLAN. Also, frames from a native VLAN are not tagged when exiting the switch via a trunk port. The 802. Iq frame format is same as 802.3. The only change is the addition of 4 bytes fields. That additional header includes a field with which to identify the VLAN number. Because inserting this header changes the frame, 802. IQ encapsulation forces a recalculation of the original FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. Note: Frame Check Sequence (FCS) is a four-octet field used to verify that the frame was received without loss or error. FCS is based on the contents of the entire frame. Question 10 What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)

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    A. transparent B. auto C. on D. desirable E. client F. forwarding Answer: BCD CCNA - Trunking Questions 2 Question 1 What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port? A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic. B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk. C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface. D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic. Answer: A Question 2 Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for vlan trunking? (Choose three) A. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface B. subinterface numbering that matches vlan tages C. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match vlan tags D. a management domain for each subinterface G E. one physical interface for each subinterface F. one subinterface per vlan Answer: A C F Question 3 Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two) A. VTP B. 802. Iq C. IGP

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    D. ISL E. 802.3u Answer: B D Explanation Cisco switches support two trunking protocols 802. Iq & ISL. 802. Iq is an open standard and is thus compatible between most vendors' equipment while Inter -Switch Link (ISL) is Cisco proprietary. Question 4 Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a Cisco switch? (choose two) A. show interfaces trunk B. show interfaces switchport C. show ip interface brief D. show interfaces vlan Answer: A B Explanation The —show interfaces trunkll command and —show interfaces switchportll command can be used to verify the status of an interface (trunking or not). The outputs of these commands are shown below (port Ethernet 1/0 has been configured as trunk): PlUltshoH P o r t Ltl/0 i n t e r f a c e s t r u n k j Hnde \ on Enc apsu l a t Ion . i d S t a t u s t r u n k i n g N a t i v e 1 < v l a n Port Etl/fl Ulans 1 4094 a l l o w e d on t r u n k Port U Ians 1 a l l o w e d and a c t i v e in management domain P o r t Ft 1 / 0 U Ians 1 in s p a n n i n g tree forwarding s t a t e and not pruned

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    Ulflttshow interfaces sw it chpo rt Name: E t 1 / 0 S w i t c h p o r t : E n a b l e d A d m i n i s t r a t i v e Ho de: trunk Opn rat iu.nal Hode : t r u n k A d m i n i s t r a t i v e T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t ion : d o t l q O p e r a t i o n a l T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t i o n : d o t l q Opr I'rt l. i luirtl El.hk rl.jjjiti ; RxRlflfl N e g o t i a t i o n of T r u n k i n g : On A c c e s s Ftodc ULAN: 1 { d e f a u l t > T r u n k i n g N a t i v e Hinde ULAN; f <tl«faLil1:> A d m i n i s t r a t i v e N a t i v e VLAN t a g g i n g : e n a b l e d O p e r a t i o n a l N a t i v e ULAN t a g g i n g : d i s a b l e d Ihiiize ULAN; none A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e —u lan ho s t - a s s o c i a t ion : none A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e ulan n a p p i n g : none Ope rai. i t m a l p r i o a t e - u T a n ; nape T r u n k i n g VLANs E n a b l e d : ALL P r u n i n g ULflNs E n a b l e d : 2 1801 Capture Mode Disabled Capture ULANc A l l o w e d : ALL The —show ip interface brief'll command only gives us information about the IP address, the status (up/down) of an interface: S10#show ip i n t e r f a c e b r i e f i n t e r f a c e T P - A d d r e s s OK? Method S t a t u s P r o t o c o I Ethcrnctfl/fl u n a s s i g n e d VER HU KAM admin i s t rat iuc Ly down down E t h e r n e t 0 / 1 u n a s s i g n e d VES NV RAN admin i s t rat ive I.y down down Ft herne i.fl/2 u n a s s i g n e d VER NVRAM adi.ri r i . l s t r a l . i u e l y down dirun Ether net 0/3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive l y down down E t h e r n e t ! /fl u n a s s i g n e d VES u n s e t up up EtheriWfil/i ii rias 5 i g n e d VER NVRAM adm in t s t r a t i uel.y down dnwri E t h e r n e t 1/2 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM adninistrat ive ly down down E t l i e r n c t l / 3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive 1 y down down lild.nl u n a s s igned VER NVRAM adm i.n i s t ra t iv e l y down down The —show interfaces vlanll command only gives uanformation about that VLAN, not about which ports are the trunk links: SlflWshou interfaces v lan 1 J l o n l is a d m i n i s t r a t i v e l y down, l i n e p r o t o c o l i s down Hardware is E t h e r S U I , a d d r e s s i s aabb . ccSfl.Ba00 <bia a a b b _ c c 8 0 . 0a0B5 fill] IbflB b y t e s , BW 1B0B0B0 K b i t , PL? 10 u s e e , r e l i a b i l i t y 2 5 5 / 2 5 5 - t x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5 . r x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5 E n c a p s u l a t i o n ARPA, l o o p b a c k not s e t K e e p a l i v e not s u p p o r t e d ARP t y p e s AREA, ARP l i n e o u t 0 4 : 0 0 ; 00 Last input n e u e r , o u t p u t n e u e r , o u t p u t hang n e u e r Last c l e a r i n g of "show i n t e r f a c e 1 ' c o u n t e r s n e v e r fupu.1. q u e u e : 0/75/0/0 i e e / n a x / d r o p s / f t u s h e s > ■ T o t a l o u t p u t drups : ft Que us in g s t rat e gy : f if o Output q u e u e : (1/40 ( s i s e / m a x ? 5 m i n u t e i n p u t rate 0 h i t s / s e r . 0 i > a r k e t s / N e c 5 m i n u t e o u t p u t r a t e 0 b i t s / s o e , fl p a c k e t s / s e c fl p a c k e t s i n p u t , (J b y t e s , 0 no b u f f e r R e c e i v e d 0 h m a d u a l s <0 TP n u l t { . c a s t s > O r u n t s , 0 g i a n t s , B t h r o t t l e s 0 i n p u t e r r o r s , 0 CBC, (J f r a n c , fl o v e r r u n , fl i g n o r e d 0 p a c k e t s o u t p u t . 0 b y t e s - 0 under runs (i o u t p u t e r r o r s , 1 i n t e r f a c e r e s e t s B o u t p u t b u f f e r f a i l u r e s , 0 o u t p u t b u f f e r s swapped out Question 5 Refer to the exhibit:

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    Switch? IP address: 192.168.1.3/24 Porta 2-12 VLAN 10 Ports 13-24 VLAN 20 ____________ How should the FastEthernetO/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices? A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. B. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk C. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1 D. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 20 Rout&tl fa 0/0.1”192.168,1.1/24 VI AN 1 fa 0/0,10 192.168.10.1/24 VLAN 10 fa 0/0.20 192.168.20.1/24 VLAN 20 Switch1 IPaddress; 192.168.1.2/24 Ports 3-12 VLAN 10 Ports 13-24 VJ AN 20 Answer: B CCNA- EtherChannel Notes: The Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) and Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) facilitate the automatic creation of EtherChannels by exchanging packets between Ethernet interfaces. The Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is a Cisco-proprietary solution, and the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is standards based. LACP modes:

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    + on: the link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation. A port-channel is formed only if the peer port is also in —onll mode. + off: disable LACP and prevent ports to form a port-channel + passive: the switch does not initiate the channel, but does understand incoming LACP packets + active: send LACP packets and willing to form a port-channel The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for LACP: LACP Active Passive Active Yes Yes Passive Yes No PAgP modes: + on: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any PAgP negotiation. A port-channel is formed only if the peer port is also in —onlluode. + off: disable PAgP and prevent ports to form a port-channel + desirable: send PAgP packets and willing to form a port-channel + auto: does not start PAgP packet negotiation but responds to PAgP packets it receives The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for PAgP: PAgP Desirable Auto Desirable Yes Yes Auto Yes No An EtherChannel in Cisco can be defined as a Layer 2 EtherChannel or a Layer 3 EtherChannel. + For Layer 2 EtherChannel, physical ports are placed into an EtherChannel group. A logical port- channel interface will be created automatically. An example of configuring Layer 2 EtherChannel can be found in Question 1 in this article. + For Layer 3 EtherChannel, a Layer 3 Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) is created and then the physical ports are bound into this Layer 3 SVI. For more information about EtherChannel, please read our EtherChannel tutorial. Question 1 Refer to the exhibit.

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    aw i bau/2 SW1 interface FastEthemet 0/1 channel- group 1 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switch port mode trunk interface FastEttiernel 0/2 channel-group 1 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switch port mode trunk A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthemet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthemet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk interface FastEthemet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthemet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthemet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthemet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq

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    switchport mode trunk ! interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk Answer: C Explanation From the configuration of SW1, we see it is using Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) with —autoll mode so the other end (SW2) must also runs PAgP with —desirablell mode to actively sending request to form an Etherchannel. Question 2 Refer to the exhibit.

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    FaO/1 FaO/1 FaO/2 FaO/2 SWlfcshow etherchannel summary Flags D ■ down P - bundled in port-channel l sland alone s - suspended H Hol-standby (LACP only) R - Layers S - Layer? U - in use f - failed to allocale aggregator M - not in use minimum links not met u unsuitable for dunoting w waiting to be aggregated d - default port Number of channel-groups in use: 2 Number of aggregators: 2 SW2#show etherchannel summary Flags D - down p - bundled in port-channel i stand alone s suspended H Hot-standby (LACP only) R - Layer3 S - Layer? U - in use t - tailed to allocate aggregator M - not in use. minimum links not met u - unsuitable tor bundling w K ailing tu be aggregated d ■ default port Number of channel -groups in use. 2 Number of aggregators' 2 Group Port- channel Protocol Ports 1 Pol(SU) LACP Faflr2{P) FaO/1(D) Group Port- channel Protocol: Ports 1 Po1(SU) LACP FaD/2(P) FaO/1 (D) SW1#show mlertace ta(]/1 FastFthernotO/1 Is down, line protocol is down (disabled) Hardware is AmdP2 r address is aabb.ccoo 05 in (bia aabb.ccOO 0510) MTU 1500 bytes. BW 10000 Kbil/sec, DLY 1000 usee, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, reload 1/255 l.ncapsulation ARFA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full duplex, I0MO/S input How control is off. oulpul How control is unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:04, output 00:00:00, output hang never I a st clearing of "show interface" counters never input queue: q/2D00W0 {size/max/dmps/nushes); Total output drops, o Queueing strategy, fifo Output queue. D?0 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits, 1 sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate D tuts/sec. 0 packets/sec SW2#show interface tau/l FastFihernctn/1 is down, line protocol is down (disabled) Hardware Is AmdP2, address is aabb.ccOO.0510 (bia aabb.cc00.0510) MTU 1500 bytes. BW WOOD KbiVsec. DLY 1000 usee, reliability 255/255, bdoad 1/255, reload 1/255 L.ncapsulation ARFA loopback not set Kcepaltve set (10 sec) Full duplex. 100Mb/s input How control is off. output flow control is unsupported ARP type. ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00.00 Last input 00’00:04, output 00:00:00, output bang never Last deanng or "show interlace'’ counters never input queue n/7oon/D/n ($ize/max/drops/fiusftes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy. Tifo Output queue: 0/0 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rale D tnlsteec. 0 packets/sec If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem? A. SWTs Fa0/l interface is administratively shut down. B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces. C. There is an MTU mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces. D. There is a speed mismatch between SWl's Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfa ces. Answer: D Explanation All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific settings that must be identical include:

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    + Speed settings + Duplex settings + STP settings + VLAN membership (for access ports) + Native VLAN (for trunk ports) + Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports) + Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports) In the output of the —show interface faO/1" commands we see the speed of interface FaO/1 of SW1 is —1OOMb/sll while that of SW2 is — lOMb/sll so the speed is mismatched hcr-e> an Etherchannel will not be formed. Question 3 A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured? A. the port-channel 1 interface B. the highest number member interface C. all member interfaces D. the lowest number member interface Answer: A Explanation When an EtherChannel is created, a logical interface will be created on the switches or routers representing for that EtherChannel. You can configure this logical interface in the way you want. For example, assign access/trunk mode on switches or assign IP address for the logical interface on routers... An example of a Layer 3 Etherchannel port is shown below: interface PortChannell2 description Link to R2 ip address 10.2.4.13 255.255.255.252 Question 4 What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel? A. speed B. DTP negotiation settings C. trunk encapsulation D. duplex

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    Answer: B Explanation All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific settings that must be identical include: + Speed settings + Duplex settings + STP settings + VLAN membership (for access ports) + Native VLAN (for trunk ports) + Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports) + Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports) -> DTP negotiation settings can be different on ports within an EtherChannel. Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. FastEthemetO/3: Port state - 1 Channel group = 2 Fort-channel - Po2 Port index = 0 Mode = Passive GC - - Load =0x00 Gcchange = - Pseudo port-channel - Po2 Protocol = LACP What set of commands was configured on interface FaO/3 to produce the given output? A. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode on switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq switchport mode trunk

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    Answer: B Explanation From the output we see these lines: + Port-channel = Po2 -> must use the command —channel roup 2 ...II + Mode = Passive -> must set the mode to passive. + Protocol = LACP -> In fact, from the —passive! mode we have already learned it is running ACP. Therefore the correct command should be —channe roup 2 mode passive!.

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    CCNA - InterVLAN Questions Question 1 Refer to the exhibit: FaO/O Trunk FaO/l 192.168.1.2/24 VLAN 3 VLAN 2 VLAN 3 Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two) A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address. B. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable. C. Routerl will not play a role in communications between host A and host D. D. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl must be configured with subinterfaces. E. Routerl needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit. F. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type. Answer: D F

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    CCNA- STP Question 1 Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three) MAC: OfOOdtace.OOOC default priority MAC: OfOd i a f e t i l l detanlt priority MAC: OlOO.fAre.DDOO default priority A. Switch A - FaO/O B. Switch A - FaO/1 C. Switch B - FaO/O D. Switch B - FaO/1 E. Switch C - FaO/O F. Switch C - FaO/1 Answer: BCD Explanation First by comparing their MAC addresses we learn that switch B will be root bridge as it has lowest MAC. Therefore all of its ports are designated ports -> C & D are correct. On the link between switch A & switch C there must have one designated port and one non- designated (blocked) port. We can figure out which port is designated port by comparing their MAC address again. A has lower MAC so FaO/1 of switch A will be designated port while FaO/1 of switch C will be blocked -> B is correct. Question 2 What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology?

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    A. lowest port MAC address B. port priority number and MAC address. C. VTP revision number D. highest port priority number. E. path cost Answer: E Explanation The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will become root port (on non-root switch). Question 3 What is one benefit of PVST+? A. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimization. C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan. D. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. Answer: C Explanation Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic. Question 4 Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two) A. 802. Id B. VTP C. 802. Iq D. STP E. SAP

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    Answer: A D Question 5 In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN? A. after broken links are re-established B. in an improperly implemented redundant topology C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability D. during high traffic periods E. when a dual ring topology is in use Answer: B Explanation If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an improperly implemented redundant topology. Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port FaO/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.

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    D. For less than a minute. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume. Answer: D Question 7 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding Answer: C Explanation PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+. Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority

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    Answer: E Question 9 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state? A. redundant B. spanned C. provisioned D. converged Answer: D Explanation Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected. Question 10 Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10 Vic?' 1 Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type VLANDOC 1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p VLANOO02 Aitn BLK 19 128.2 P2p VLAN0003 Root FWD 19 128.2 P2p A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802. Id Spanning Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch. Answer: C

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    CCNA- STP2 Question 1 Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? A. the switch with the highest MAC address B. the switch with the lowest MAC address C. the switch with the highest IP address D. the switch with the lowest IP address Answer: B Question 2 Based on the network shown in the graphic Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? A. routing loops, hold down timers B. Switching loops, split horizon C. routing loops, split horizon D. Switching loops, VTP E. routing loops, STP F. Switching loops, STP Answer: F Question 3

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    Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4 Answer: C Explanation First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Next, by comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked. The picture below shows the roles of all ports:

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    Sv/iichl Distribution Layer Switch? DP: Designated Port RP: Root Port BP: Blocked Port (Please notice that Switch 1 will become the root bridge because of its lowest priority, not Switch 3) CCNA- RSTP Note: If you are not sure about Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, please read our Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol RSTP Tutorial. Question 1 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links. Answer: ABD Question 2 Refer to the exhibit:

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    Switch show spanning-tree vlan 1 VLAN 0001 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority Address Cost Port Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec 20481 0008.217a.5800 38 1 (FastEthernetO/1) Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address 0008.205c.6600 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 1 5 sec Aging Time 300 Bridge ID Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Ntn Type FaO/1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p FaO/4 Desg FDD 38 128.1 P2p FaO/U Altn BLK 57 128.1 P2p Fa0/13 Desg FWD 38 128.1 P2p Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? A. It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment. B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802. Id spanning tree. C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Answer: D Explanation As we can see from the output above, the priority of the root bridge is 20481 while that of the local bridge is 32769. Question 3 Which command enables RSTP on a switch? A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst B. spanning-tree uplinkfast C. spanning-tree backbonefast D. spanning-tree mode mst Answer: A

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    Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? S w i t c h A # show s p a n n i n g t r e c vlan 20 VLAN 0020 Spanning t r e e e n a b l e d p r o t o c o l r s Root 1 D P r i o r i t y 2 556 A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 9 6 d . 2 a 0 0 Cost 35 P o r t 1 1 ( F a s t E t h e r n e t O / l O ) H a l l o Time 2 sec Max Age 2 J s e a Forward D e l a y 15 sea B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 0 6 5 2 [ p r i o r i t y 2 6 6 7 2 i d - e x t 1) A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 $ 6 d . l 5 B 0 H e l l o Tine 2 s e a Max Age 20 aec F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c A g i n g Time 300 I n t e r f a c e R o l e S t s C o a t P r i o . N b r Type F a O / 1 1 F a O / 1 2 Root FWD 19 1 2 6 . 1 1 P2p Al tn BMC 19 1 2 6 . 1 2 P2p A. The FaO/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20. B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol. C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580. D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated. Answer: D Explanation Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/l 1 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not the root bridge -> A is not correct. From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> B is not correct. 0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> C is not correct. All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1 Alternative port so it is not the root bridge -> D is correct. Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three)

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    S w i t c h shou spanning - ‘ t r e e v i s n 30 VLAN003Q 3 p a n n i n g t r e e enabled: p r o t o c o l r s t p Pooc ID Pr l o t i c y 2 4 60S Address OOdO . OATb. 2800 T h i s b r i d g e i s t h e r o o t H e l l o Tune 2 s e c Han Age 20 s e c F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 4 6 0 5 (pt . r l t y 3 4 5 7 6 s y s - 1 .:- ■ ?* r. 50) A d d r e s s -io ■ -’0.047- .2 poo H-L1C Tur- Aging Tune I n t e r f a c e 2 sec Hax 300 Age 2 Cl C o s t sec Forward Delay 15 sec Role S t s P t lo . tfbr T y p e FA1 / 1 Deag FWD 4 1 2 8 . 1 p2p Fa 1/2 Desg FUD 4 1 2 8 . 2 p 2 p F a s / 1 Descr FWD 4 1 2 8 , 2 5 7 A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding. B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch. Answer: ACE Explanation From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are correct. The command —show spanningree vlan 30" only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type —p2pll, which means Pointto-point environment - not a shared media -> D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct. Question 6 Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)

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    A. blocking B. learning C. disabled D. forwarding E. listening Answer: A D Explanation RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding but the answers don't mention about discarding state so blocking state (answer A) may be considered the best alternative answer. Question 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802. ID STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802. ID STP. Answer: B E Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)

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    SwitchA SwitchB MAC Address MAC Address MAC Address MAC Address 0013.B030.5e80 0013.80t7.S700 A. SwitchA, FaO/2, designated B. SwitchA, FaO/1, root C. SwitchB, GiO/2, root D. SwitchB, GiO/1, designated E. SwitchC, FaO/2, root F. SwitchD, GiO/2, root Answer: ABF Explanation The question says —no other configuration changes have been madell so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (FaO/1 & FaO/2) will be designated ports -> E is incorrect. Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (FaO/1) and SwitchD (GiO/2) will be root ports -> B and F are correct. Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, —cost! is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost 10Mbps 100 100Mbps 19

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    1 Gbps 4 SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface GiO/1 & GiO/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the —cost to the root bridgell of each switch becausa switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. In the exhibit you also we FastEthemet port is connecting to GigabitEthemet port. In this case GigabitEthemet port will operate as a FastEthemet port so the link can be considered as FastEthemet to FastEthemet connection. One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself) with an initial value of 0. Now let's have a look at the topology again r I can reach Root via + GiO/1: cost 23 + Gi(N2: costae . ■ SwitchB QiP/1 is better! . MAC Address 0013.80d7.d580 i My cost to th# SwitchA I root bridge is 19 MAC Addres 00 13.8039.9500 SwitchC MAC Address . 013.3030.5eB0 SwrtchD MAC Address 00 13 80c 7 9700 SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 19 (the cost value of 100Mbps link although the port on Switch D is GigabitEthemet port) and advertises this value (19) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds 4 (the cost value of IGbps link) and leams that it can reach SwitchC via GiO/1 port with a total cost of 23. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB leams that it can reach SwitchC via GiO/2 with a total cost of 38 -> Switch B chooses GiO/1 as its root port -> D is not correct. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so FaO/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while GiO/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port -> A is correct but C is not correct. Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

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    SwItchA MAC A d d r e s s 0013 0039 9500 SwitchB MAC Address 0013 80 d? d580 SwitchD MAC Address 0 0 1 3 . 8 0 c 7. 9700 FaC/1 SwItchC MAC A d d r e s s 001 3. BO 30. 5e BO + DP: Designated Port (forwarding state) + RP: Root Port (forwarding state) + AP: Alternative Port (blocking state) Question 9 Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? Distribution Layer Switchl Priority 4096 MAC 00l0.7bcc.7320 SwitchZ Priority 8192 .MAC 0010.7bcc.732d CiO/i Switch Priority 32768 MAC 0010.7bcc.733a Switch*! ’ J . Priority 32768 MAC O010.7bcc.7347 faO/12 0'11. --- ■ I taO/1 faO/2 Access Layer A. Switch3, port fa0/l B. Switch3, port faO/12 C. Switch4, port fa0/ll D. Switch4, port faO/2 E. Switch3, port Gi0/l

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    Answer: C Explanation In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has: 1. A lower Root Bridge ID 2. A lower path cost to the Root 3. A lower Sending Bridge ID 4. A lower Sending Port ID These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Sswitch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). Tn this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because FaO/12 is inferior to FaO/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with FaO/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port faO/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role). If you are still not sure about this question, please read my RSTP tutorial . CCNA - Access list Questions Note: If you are not sure about Access list, please read our Access List Tutorial. Question 1 Which item represents the standard IP ACL? A. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255 B. access-list 110 permit ip any any C. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22 D. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 Answer: A Explanation The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a standard access list.

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    Question 2 A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two) A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255 B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255 C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255 D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255 E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255 F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0 Answer: A C Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. ACL 102 access-list 102 deny tcp 172.21.1.1 0.0.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 102 deny ip any any RouterA#show ip int FastEthemet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Internet address is 192.168.1.144/20 Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255 Address determined by DHCP MTU is 1500 bytes Helper address is not set Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled Outgoing access list is 102 Inbound access list is not set Proxy ARP is enabled An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102? A. no ip access-class 102 in B. no ip access-class 102 out C. no ip access-group 102 in D. no ip access-group 102 out E. no ip access-list 102 in Answer: D

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    Question 4 On which options are standard access lists based? A. destination address and wildcard mask B. destination address and subnet mask C. source address and subnet mask D. source address and wildcard mask Answer: D Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. ACL 10 Statements are written in this order: A. permit any B. deny 172.21.1.128 0.0.0.15 C. permit 172.21.1.129 0.0.0.0 D. permit 172.21.1.142 0.0.0.0 Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended? A. ACDB B. BADC C. DBAC D. CDBA Answer: D Question 6 Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true? A. you can apply only one access list on any interface B. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol C. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface D. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 2 protocol

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    Answer: B Explanation We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means: + We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface + We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface Question 7 A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used? A. reflexive B. extended C. standard D. dynamic Answer: D Explanation We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080Q94524.shtml

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    CCNA- Subnetting Note: If you are not sure about Subnetting, please read our Subnetting Tutorial - Subnetting Made Easy. Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses? Network A 66 Hosts Network B 310 Hosts A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.254.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.248.0 Answer: B Explanation 310 hosts < 512 = 2 9 -> We need a subnet mask of 9 bits 0 -> 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1110.0000 0000 -> 255.255.254.0 Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two)

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    Link A Network A 120 Hosts 172,16. 3.3 2127 172.16.3.96/27 172,16,3.64/27 A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26 B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25 C. NetworkA - 172.16.3.192/26 D. LinkA - 172.16.3.0/30 E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30 F. LinkA - 172.16.3.112/30 Answer: B D Explanation Network A needs 120 hosts < 128 = 2 7 -> Need a subnet mask of 7 bit 0s -> — 125” . Because the ip subnet-zero command is used, network 172.16.3.0/30 can be used. Answer E —Link A -172.16.3.40/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to MARKETING subnet (172.16.3.32/27). Answer F —Link A -172.16.3.112/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to ADMIN subnet (172.16.3.96/27). Question 3 You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252 B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248 C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252 D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240 E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

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    Answer: B Question 4 Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts? A. 0.0.0.240 B. 255.255.255.252 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.224 E. 255.255.255.240 Answer: D Explanation A is not correct because it is a wildcard mask (not subnet mask). This question is a bit unclear but we can suppose we have to begin with default subnet mask and —subnetll it. And the default subnet mask here should be class C: 255.255.255.0 For answer B: 252 = 1111 1100 -> with this subnet mask we can subnet up to 2 6 = 64 subnets but only 2 2 - 2 = 2 hosts per subnet -> B is not correct. C is not correct because it is the default subnet mask of class C and that means we don't —subnetll it. For answer E: 240 = 1111 0000 -> There are 2 4 = 16 subnets but only 2 4 - 2 = 14 hosts per subnet < 26 hosts -> E does not satisfy the second requirement (of 26 hosts per subnet). For answer D: 224 = 1110 0000 -> There are 2 3 = 8 subnets and 2 5 - 2 = 30 hosts > 26 hosts -> This is the correct answer. Note: The number —511 in II with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts! is just used to trick you and it does not have any effect on our answer. Question 5 An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? A. IPaddress: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

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    B. IPaddress: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1 C. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 D. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17 E. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A? A. 172.16.0.0/16 B. 172.16.0.0/20 C. 172.16.0.0/24 D. 172.32.0.0/16 E. 172.32.0.0/17 F. 172.64.0.0/16

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    Answer: A Explanation Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18. All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in that form -> Only A, B or C is correct. The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its subnet mask equal or smaller than /18. -> Only answer A has these 2 conditions -> A is correct. Question 7 You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each.Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/27 B. 10.188.31.0/26 C. 10.188.31.0/29 D. 10.188.31.0/28 E. 10.188.31.0/25 Answer: A Explanation Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 2 5 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts-per- subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> A is correct. Question 8 Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two) A. reduces routing table entries B. auto-negotiation of media rates C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses D. dedicated communications between devices E. ease of management and troubleshooting Answer: A E

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