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Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition Test Bank

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    Chapter 01: Microbial Taxonomy Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Taxonomy can be described as a system that: a. classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner. b. classifies microorganisms, based on their genetic makeup. c. classifies microorganisms, based on their phenotypic makeup. d. classifies microorganisms, based on their cellular and colonial traits. ANS: A Taxonomy is a system that consistently classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms. Although organisms have genotypic and phenotypic characteristics, as well as cellular and colonial characteristics, answer A best describes the term taxonomy . REF: 1 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 2. The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is: a. genus. b. species. c. class. d. kingdom. ANS: B Bacteria are classified into the same species, based on their physiologic and genetic similarities and their differences from bacteria in other species. REF: 1 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 3. Colonial and microscopic morphologic properties, along with the pigmentation of colonies, would belong to a microorganism group of ________ characteristics. a. genotypic b. taxonomic c. phenotypic d. subspecies ANS: C Phenotypic characteristics are the observable properties of the subject. REF: 2 – 3 OBJ: Level: Application 4. Which binomial name is correctly written? a. Escherichia coli b. Escherichia coli c. Escherichia coli d. Escherichia Coli ANS: A

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    The genus should be capitalized, and the species should be in lowercase. The entire name is either italicized or underlined. REF: 2 OBJ: Level: Application 5. The use of a double genus in a microorganism’s label, such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas), indicates that the bacterium: a. does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups. b. is a genetic cross between the two groups. c. has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) . d. has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas) . ANS: C A name of an organism may change as scientists learn more about the organism. An older name is often included in parentheses next to the current name to alleviate confusion about the identity of the organism. REF: 2 OBJ: Level: Application 6. A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus ( Burkholderia) would be correctly noted as which one of the following? a. Pseudomonas (Burkholderia) b. Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) c. Pseudomonas , formerly Burkholderia d. Burkholderia , formerly Pseudomonas ANS: B The name of an organism may change as scientists learn more about the organism. An older name is often included in parentheses next to the current name to alleviate confusion about the identity of the organism. REF: 2 OBJ: Level: Application 7. The taxon that is composed of similar species that have several important features in common but differ sufficiently to still maintain their status as individual species is which one of the following? a. Class b. Order c. Family d. Genus ANS: D The genus is composed of similar species. REF: 1 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 8. Which binomial name is correctly written? a. Staphylococcus Aureus b. staphylococcus aureus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus aureus

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    ANS: C The genus should be capitalized, and the species should be in lowercase. The entire name is either italicized or underlined. REF: 2 OBJ: Level: Application 9. An example of an organism’s genotypic characteristic is its: a. macroscopic morphologic structure. b. microscopic morphologic structure. c. nucleic acid composition. d. antigenic properties. ANS: C The organism’s nucleic acid composition — deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) — is a genotypic characteristic. All of the other choices are phenotypic characteristics. REF: 2 – 3 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 10. An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory. This is an e xample of which phenotypic property? a. Subcellular properties b. Antigenic properties c. Resistant profiles d. Nucleic acid sequence analysis ANS: B Serologic methods examine the organism’s antigenic properties. REF: 3 OBJ: Level: Application

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    Chapter 02: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Pieces of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that move from one genetic element to another and contain genes for mov ement and genes for other features are called: a. transposons. b. insertion sequences. c. plasmids. d. chromatoids. ANS: A Insertion sequences only code for movement. REF: 7 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 2. Miniature chromosomes composed of several genes in double - stranded, closed, circular structures are called: a. transposons. b. insertion sequences. c. plasmids. d. chromatoids. ANS: C Plasmids can be separate entities, but transposable elements (transposons and insertion sequences) cannot. REF: 5 | 7 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 3. A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (ribonucleic acid [RNA] or pr otein) is defined as a: a. gene. b. genome. c. nucleotide. d. deoxyribonucleic acid. ANS: A The genome is the collection of all the genes of an organism. Nucleotides and DNA are building blocks of genes. REF: 5 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 4. The enzyme that adds nucleotide bases to each growing daughter strand in the replication process is called: a. replication enzymes. b. DNA polymerase. c. insertion sequence enzymes. d. transcriptase. ANS: B

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    DNA polymerase is a specific type of replication enzyme. REF: 7 – 8 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 5. If a bacterial cell encounters unfavorable environmental conditions, then its metabolism will begin to slow until it eventually transforms into an inactive, dormant state. This survival mechanism is known as: a. polymerization. b. oxidation. c. respiration. d. sporulation. ANS: D Organisms sporulate when unfavorable conditions are encountered and remain in this state until favorable conditions return. REF: 21 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 6. Teichoic acids, mycolic acids, peptidoglycan, and disaccharide - pentapeptide subunits are all building blocks of which bacterial structure? a. Outer cell membrane b. Flagella c. Inner cell membrane d. Cell wall ANS: D These elements are all part of the cell walls of some types of bacteria. REF: 19 – 20 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 7. The major difference between gram - positive and gram - negative bacteria is that: a. the peptidoglycan layer in gram - positive bacteria is substantially thinner than in gram - negative bacteria. b. gram - positive bacteria contain a periplasmic space, whereas gram - negative bacteria do not. c. flagella are only present in gram - positive bacteria. d. gram - negative bacteria contain an outer membrane that functions as the cell’s initial barrier to the environment. ANS: D Gram - negative bacteria contain an outer membrane, but gram - positive bacteria do not. REF: 19 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 8. In gene regulation and control, repression is defined as the: a. internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. b. mechanism of genetic control in which genes are induced only when the substrate to be degraded by enzymatic action is present. c. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. d. mechanism of genetic control in which genes are not transcribed and therefore are

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    not expressed in the presence of those target products in sufficient supply. ANS: D To avoid waste and overproduction of enzymes in the cell, some genes are turned off by the presence of the product of that gene expression. REF: 11 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 9. In gene regulation and control, induction can be defined as the: a. mechanism of genetic control in which genes are induced only when the substrate to be degraded by enzymatic action is present. b. uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient’s homologous DNA. c. mechanism of genetic control in which genes are not transcribed and therefore ar e not expressed in the presence of those target products in sufficient supply. d. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. ANS: A To avoid waste and overproduction of enzymes in the cell, some genes are turned on only by the presence of the substrate of that gene expression. REF: 11 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 10. Mutation is defined as the: a. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. b. internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. c. process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another. d. uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient’s homologous DNA. ANS: B Mutation occurs as an internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. REF: 12 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 11. Recombination is defined as the: a. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. b. internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. c. process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another. d. uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient’s homologous DNA. ANS: A

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    Recombination is an event that frequently occurs in many varieties of bacteria and is a major means by which bacteria may achieve genetic diversity. REF: 12 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 12. Transformation is defined as the: a. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. b. internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. c. process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another. d. uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient’s homologous DNA. ANS: D Transformation involves recipient uptake of DNA that is free in the environment when another bacterial cell dies and undergoes lysis. REF: 12 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 13. Transduction is defined as the: a. change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another. b. internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome. c. process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another. d. mechanism that is mediated by viruses, by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, thus allowing for recombination. ANS: D Bacteriophages, viruses that infect bacteria, integrate their DNA into the bacterial cell’s chromosome, in which viral DNA replication and expression is directed; thus, the DNA is dispersed to another bacterium when other cells are infected. REF: 12 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 14. The mechanism for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production in which high - energy p hosphate bonds produced by the central metabolic pathways are donated to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to form ATP is: a. substrate - level phosphorylation. b. fermentative metabolism. c. oxidative phosphorylation. d. aerobic respiration. ANS: A Fermentative metabolism is one form of substrate - level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation is an electron transport system that can use either oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor (aerobic respiration) or acceptors other than oxygen (anaerobic respiration).

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    REF: 15 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 15. A pathway that generates ATP by substrate - level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen and produces various end products, including alcohols, acids, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen, is: a. substrate - level phosphorylation. b. fermentative metabolism. c. oxidative phosphorylation. d. aerobic respiration. ANS: B Fermentative metabolism is one form of substrate - level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation, including both aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration, is an electron transport system. REF: 15 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 16. The pathway of metabolism that involves a series of electron transfers from reduced carrier molecules such as NADH 2 and NADPH 2 to a terminal electron acceptor is: a. substrate - level phosphorylation. b. fermentative metabolism. c. oxidative phosphorylation. d. aerobic respiration. ANS: C Fermentative metabolism is one form of substrate - level phosphorylation. Oxidativ e phosphorylation is an electron transport system that can use either oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor (aerobic respiration) or acceptors other than oxygen (anaerobic respiration). REF: 17 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 17. The term used when oxidative phosphorylation uses oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is: a. substrate - level phosphorylation. b. fermentative metabolism. c. anaerobic respiration. d. aerobic respiration. ANS: D Oxidative phosphorylation is an electron transport system that can use either oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor (aerobic respiration) or acceptors other than oxygen (anaerobic respiration). REF: 17 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 18. Which organelle is found in eukaryotic cells and is responsible for controlled enzymatic degradation of intracellular substances? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Golgi body

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    ANS: B Lysosomes in the cell are responsible for controlled degradation of intracellular substances. REF: 18 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 19. Teichoic acids are: a. waxy substances that are found in some bacterial cell walls that make the cells resistant to toxic substances, including acids. b. glycerol - or ribitol - phosphate polymers that are combined with various sugars, amino acids, and amino sugars, which are a part of the cell wall of gram - positive bacteria. c. high – molecular - weight polysaccharides that coat some bacterial cells and protect the bacteria from attack by cells of the human defense system. d. hairlike, proteinaceous structures that extend from the cell. ANS: B Teichoic acids, mycolic acids, peptidoglycan, and disaccharide - pentapeptide subunits are all building blocks of the bacterial cell wall. REF: 19 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 20. Pieces of DNA that move from plasmid to chromosome or vice versa but are not found as separate entities are called: a. DNA polymerases. b. transposable elements. c. plasmids. d. chromatoids. ANS: B Plasmids can be separate entities, but transposable elements cannot. REF: 7 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 21. All genes within an organism make up that organism’s: a. chromosomes. b. genome. c. nucleotides. d. DNA. ANS: B Chromosomes are elements of the genome. Nucleotides and DNA are building blocks of genes. REF: 5 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 22. A bacterial cell that contains teichoic acid stains which color on the Gram stain? a. Pink b. Red c. Green d. Purple ANS: D

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    Gram - positive organisms contain teichoic acid and therefore stain purple on the Gram stain. REF: 18 OBJ: Level: Application 23. A bacterial cell that contains an outer membrane and periplasmic space stains pink to red on Gram stain. Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy? a. The bacteria were subjected to too much alcohol during the decolorization process, causing the organism to absorb the pink - to - red dye. b. The bacteria with an outer membrane and periplasmic space should not be Gram stained because of their cell wall content. c. Something is wrong with the lot of stains and may be expired. The gram stain reagents are most likely expired. d. No discrepancy is present; organisms that contain an outer membrane and periplasmic space should stain pink because of their cell wall composition. ANS: D Gram - negative organisms contain an outer membrane and periplasmic space and therefore should stain red to pink to red on Gram stain because of their cell wall composition. REF: 18 OBJ: Level: Problem Solving 24. Amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, and nucleotides are produced during which metabolic reaction? a. Fueling b. Biosynthesis c. Polymerization d. Assembly ANS: B During biosynthesis, amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, and nucleotides are produced using precursor products in dozens of pathways to produce nearly 100 different products. REF: 18 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 25. Which of the following processes takes place in the cytoplasm and involves the transfer RNA (tRNA) mediating the sequential addition of amino acids in a specific sequence that is dictated by the codon sequence of the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule? a. Transcription b. Initiation c. Elongation d. Termination ANS: C Elongation, which is one of the steps of translation, adds amino acids in a specific sequence, which ultimately codes for a specific protein. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm, whereas transcription occurs in the nucleus. Initiation begins with the association of ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and formylmethionine tRNA carrying the initial amino acid of the protein to be synthesized. After the initial complex is formed, addition of individual amino acids begins. Termination is the final step in translation and occurs when the ribosomal A site encounters a stop codon that does not specify an amino acid.

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    REF: 9 OBJ: Level: Knowledge

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    Chapter 03: Host - Microorganism Interactions Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A human infection that results from a microorganism that primarily infects anima l populations is referred to as a(n) _________ infection. a. accidental b. zoonotic c. secondary d. vector ANS: B Some microorganisms primarily infect animal populations but can occasionally inf ect humans in what is called a zoonotic infection. REF: 24 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 2. The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n): a. infection. b. colonization. c. nosocomial infection. d. reservoir. ANS: B Microorganisms are everywhere in nature, including on and in the human body. Sometimes they do not cause disease but instead coexist with the host. REF: 25 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 3. Cells that ingest and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles are called: a. phagocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. goblet cells. d. ciliated cells. ANS: A Phagocytes are cells that ingest and destroy invading bacteria when they enter the human body. REF: 28 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 4. Cells with a short life span that circulate in blood and tissues and are usually the first cells on the scene of a bacterial invasion are called: a. monocytes. b. polymorphonuclear neutrophils. c. lymphocytes. d. macrophages. ANS: B

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    All the cells listed are involved in the body’s cellular responses to foreign particles, but neutrophils are short - lived cells that circulate in blood and tissues. REF: 28 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 5. Swelling, redness, heat, and pain are all manifestations of: a. nosocomial infection. b. inflammation. c. bacterial colonization. d. coagulation. ANS: B Inflammation is a system that has both cellular and biochemical components that interact in various ways to fight microbial invasion in the human body. REF: 29 – 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 6. The complement system serves to: a. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances. b. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. c. provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities of other cells. d. ingest and destroy microorganisms. ANS: B Because neutrophils and macrophages are widely dispersed throughout the body, the complement system sends signals to attract and concentrate these cells at the point of invasion. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 7. The coagulation system serves to: a. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances. b. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. c. provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities of other cells. d. ingest and destroy microorganisms. ANS: A The coagulation system increases blood flow and walls off the infection. It accomplishes this through the production of barrier substances. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 8. Biochemicals known as cytokines serve to: a. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances. b. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. c. have substantial effects on the activities of other cells. d. directly kill gram - negative bacteria.

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    ANS: C A key component of inflammation is the group of cytokines that are substances secreted by macrophage s and other cells that enhance the antiinfective activities of other cells. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 9. Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called: a. antigens. b. immunoglobulins. c. cytokines. d. phagogens. ANS: B Produced by B lympho cytes in response to the presence of foreign molecules, immunoglobulins (antibodies) are present in serum and in secretions such as saliva and are the central molecule of the immune response. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 10. The antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes is: a. immunoglobulin (Ig) G. b. IgA. c. IgM. d. IgE. ANS: B Each of the five different classes of antibodies has its distinctive molecular configuration and is involved in the immune reaction in a different way. IgA is secreted in body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 11. Which stage of infection is characterized by host deterioration and possibly death? a. Prodromal b. Clinical c. Decline d. Convalescent ANS: C REF: 36 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 12. Which immune system cells primarily function as antibody producers and originate from stem cells? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Neutrophils ANS: A

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    Produced by B lymphocytes in response to the presence of foreign molecules, immunoglobulins (antibodies) are present in serum and in secretions such as saliva and are the central molecule of the immune response. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 13. Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Neutrophils ANS: C Natural killer cells are an important cellular component of the immune response that serve to destroy infected or malignant host cells. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 14. Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections. a. chronic b. latent c. acute d. nosocomial ANS: C Depending on the host and microbial factors, infections may develop quickly (acute) or slowly (chronic). REF: 35 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 15. Infectious processes that develop and slowly progress are known as _________ infections. a. chronic b. latent c. acute d. nosocomial ANS: A Depending on the host and microbial factors, infections may develop quickly (acute) or slowly (chronic). REF: 35 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 16. Proper hand - washing and hygiene procedures by hospital staff are essential in preventing which types of infections? a. Chronic b. Latent c. Acute d. Nosocomial ANS: D Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted in the hospital environment, sometimes being transmitted by the contact of hospital personnel such as the nursing staff.

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