Skip to content
Exam Guides

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition

Simplify your revision with Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition, packed with helpful practice questions.

Preview 31 of 338 pages

See the first 31 pages exactly as they appear in the document.

  1. Page 1
    Read page 1 as text

    ch01 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters. 2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters. 3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters. 4. When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called 3-7-2013 A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy. 5. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A. mosquitoes B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses E. fungi 6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A. cause human disease. B. lack a cell nucleus. C. are infectious particles. D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye. E. can only be found growing in laboratories.

  2. Page 2
  3. Page 3
    Read page 3 as text

    7. Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria C. humans using yeast to make beer and wine D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis E. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community 8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A. cause human disease B. lack a nucleus C. cannot be seen without a microscope D. contain genetic material E. lack cell structure 9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was A. Francesco Redi. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Louis Pasteur. D. Joseph Lister. E. Robert Koch. 10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation. B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine. C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms. D. microorganisms could cause disease. E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions. 11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A. belief in a preconceived idea B. formulate a hypothesis C. systematic observation D. laboratory experimentation E. development of a theory 12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that A. germs cause infectious diseases. B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous. C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it. D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings. E. living things arise from nonliving matter. 13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A. microbes are found on dust particles. B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.

  4. Page 4
    Read page 4 as text

    14. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A. Species B. Phylum C. Kingdom D. Genus E. Family 15. Which of the following is a scientific name? A. bacteria B. Protista C. species D. Bacillus subtilis E. bacilli 16. Taxonomy does not involve A. nomenclature. B. classification. C. taxa. D. identification. E. Koch's postulates. 17. The smallest and most significant taxon is A. Genus. B. Species. C. Kingdom. D. Family. E. Phylum. 18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A. biotechnology. B. genetics. C. recombinant DNA. D. phylogeny. E. taxonomy. 19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on A. determining evolutionary relatedness. B. bioremediation. C. recombinant DNA. D. nomenclature. E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease. 20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified? A. Monera B. Protista C. Fungi D. Animalia E. Plantae 21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of A. food microbiology. B. epidemiology. C. agricultural microbiology. D. genetic engineering. E. biotechnology.

  5. Page 5
    Read page 5 as text

    22. Helminths are A. bacteria. B. protozoa. C. molds. D. parasitic worms. E. infectious particles. 23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except A. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae . B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material. C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere. D. it is fueled by light. E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food. 24. Organisms called parasites are A. always classified in the kingdom Monera. B. always harmful to their host. C. the decomposers in ecosystems. D. always viruses. E. free-living. 25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was A. Joseph Lister. B. Ignaz Semmelweis. C. Robert Koch. D. Louis Pasteur. E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. 26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis ? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Louis Pasteur E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 27. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right): A. family, order, class B. family, genus, species C. genus, species, family D. class, phylum, order E. kingdom, domain, phylum 28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism, A. the species name is capitalized. B. the species name is placed first. C. the species name can be abbreviated. D. both genus and species names are capitalized. E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. 29. The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are): A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Carl Woese and George Fox. D. Robert Whittaker. E. Francesco Redi.

  6. Page 6
    Read page 6 as text

    30. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom A. Monera. B. Protista. C. Mycetae. D. Plantae. E. Animalia. 31. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes? A. Monera B. Protista C. Mycetae D. Plantae E. Animalia 32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth? A. bacteria and fungi B. bacteria and viruses C. algae and viruses D. protists and fungi E. all organisms are decomposers 33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is A. HIV/AIDS. B. stroke. C. heart disease. D. cancer. E. malaria. 34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. diarrheal diseases B. tuberculosis C. malaria D. septicemia E. influenza 35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except A. they are smaller than eukaryotes. B. they lack a nucleus. C. they are less complex than eukaryotes. D. they have organelles. E. they are found nearly everywhere. 36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except A. the decrease in drug resistant bacteria. B. human encroachment on wild habitats. C. changes in agricultural practices. D. populations are more mobile. 37. Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Ferdinand Cohn E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

  7. Page 7
    Read page 7 as text

    38. Which of the following is the correct way to type the scientific name of this bacterium? A. Staph Aureus B. Staphylococcus Aureus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus Aureus E. S. Aureus 39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea? A. a human's large intestine B. in a hot spring C. a pond D. a sewage treatment plant E. a beer production facility 40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy. 41. Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection? A. gastric ulcers B. female infertility C. coronary artery disease D. cervical cancer E. All of the choices are correct. 42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there. A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. This use of bacteria is a good example of ____. A. Bioremediation B. Immunology C. Astromicrobiology D. British physiology E. Epidemiology 43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who is broken out in hives and experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin? A. Agricultural Microbiology B. Epidemiology C. Biotechnology D. Immunology E. Industrial Microbiology 44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called ___. A. Strict aerobes B. Strict anaerobes C. Saprobes D. Predators E. Parasites 45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. True False

  8. Page 8
    Read page 8 as text

    46. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms. True False 47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic. True False 48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. True False 49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years before eukaryotes appeared. True False 50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world. True False 51. The term sterile means free of all life forms. True False 52. All microorganisms are parasites. True False 53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study. True False 54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. True False 55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised. True False 56. A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory. True False 57. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. True False 58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments. True False 59. The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms. ________________________________________ 60. _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time. ________________________________________ 61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____. ________________________________________ 62. _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering. ________________________________________ 63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach. ________________________________________

  9. Page 9
    Read page 9 as text

    64. Discuss what might be three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimental consequences of killing all microorganisms on the earth. 65. Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world. 66. Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous generation.

  10. Page 10
    Read page 10 as text

    ch01 Key 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. E 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. E 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. E 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. E 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. A

  11. Page 11
    Read page 11 as text

    37. D 38. C 39. B 40. A 41. E 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. FALSE 48. FALSE 49. TRUE 50. FALSE 51. TRUE 52. FALSE 53. FALSE 54. TRUE 55. FALSE 56. TRUE 57. FALSE 58. TRUE 59. taxonomy 60. Evolution 61. microorganisms 62. Viruses 63. deductive 64. 65. 66.

  12. Page 12
    Read page 12 as text

    ch01 Summary Category # of Questions ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. 1 ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. 1 ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. 18 ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including brig ht field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). 5 ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1 ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critic al capabilities. 2 ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. 6 ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their uniq ue structures and genomes. 2 ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, metha ne production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). 2 ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). 5 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris tics. 1 ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 3 ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. 1 ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 1 ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 3 ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 5 ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. 16 ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cyc les and plant and/or animal microflora). 3 ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 4 ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experi ments based on the scientific method. 6 ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological met hods and apply these methods to analogous situations. 1 ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental conc epts of microbiology in written and oral format. 2 ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). 2 ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 1 ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 19 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 12 ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 9 ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 1 ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 22 ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 7 ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking 9 ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 3 General Viral Properties 1 Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of m icrobiology. 11 Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earths ecosystems. 6 Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ fro m cellular microbes. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and indust rial products. 5

  13. Page 13
    Read page 13 as text

    Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. 9 Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. 3 Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of microbiology, including the major contributors to the early dev elopment of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. 8 Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive rea soning and between hypothesis and theory. 6 Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and pla ce them in a hierarchy. 6 Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly w rite a scientific name. 5 Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and its use in studyi ng organisms. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. 4 Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. 5 Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name 1 Talaro - Chapter 01 66 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 1 Topic: Cellular Organization 2 Topic: Epidemiology 2 Topic: Food Microbiology 1 Topic: Helminths 2 Topic: History of Microbiology 13 Topic: Hypersensitivities 1 Topic: Microbial Roles 21 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 1 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms 27 Topic: Viral structure 1

  14. Page 14
    Read page 14 as text

    ch02 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called A. an electron. B. living. C. matter. D. energy. E. space. 2. The electrons of an atom are A. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals. 3. All of the following pertain to 14 6 C except it A. has 6 protons. B. has 6 electrons. C. has 14 neutrons. D. is an isotope of carbon. E. mass number is 14. 4. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the A. electrons. B. protons. C. neutrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons. 5. Cations are A. charged subatomic particles. B. atoms that have gained electrons. C. radioactive isotopes. D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions. E. atoms without protons. 6. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A. neutron number. B. electron number. C. proton number. D. atomic number. E. chemical properties. 7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 18 E. 32

  15. Page 15
    Read page 15 as text

    8. Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an A. ion. B. isotope. C. element. D. electrolyte. E. molecule. 9. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom 32 16 S? A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 10. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded A. identical atoms. B. carbon atoms. C. ions. D. atoms of different electronegativity. E. atoms of identical electronegativity. 11. Reactions involving electron release are called ______ reactions. A. oxidation. B. reduction. C. ionization. D. decomposition. E. dissolution. 12. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. AB + XY → AX + BY D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY E. None of the choices are correct. 13. The important solvent associated with living things is A. carbon dioxide. B. sodium chloride. C. ethyl alcohol. D. benzene. E. water. 14. Which term does not belong in this list? A. lactic acid B. vinegar C. hydrogen ion donor D. pH 8 E. acidic 15. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9 A. is more basic. B. has no OH - ions. C. has more H + ions. D. has a higher pH. E. All of the choices are correct.

  16. Page 16
    Read page 16 as text

    16. What do H 2 O, NaCl, CO 2 , and HCl all have in common? A. all are salts B. all are acids C. all are gases D. all are inorganic E. all are solutes 17. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? A. phosphate - carbohydrates B. sulfhydryl - proteins C. amino - proteins D. hydroxyl - alcohols E. carboxyl - fatty acids 18. The building blocks of an enzyme are A. nucleotides. B. glycerol and fatty acids. C. monosaccharides. D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids. E. amino acids. 19. All of the following are monosaccharides except A. glucose. B. glycogen. C. fructose. D. ribose. E. deoxyribose. 20. All of the following are lipids except: A. cholesterol B. starch C. phospholipid D. wax E. triglyceride 21. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms. A. 10, 5 B. 5, 10 C. 5, 5 D. 10, 10 E. 2, 1 22. One nucleotide contains A. one phosphate. B. one pentose. C. one nitrogen base. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 23. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? A. triglycerides B. monosaccharides C. polypeptides D. polysaccharides E. ATP

  17. Page 17
    Read page 17 as text

    24. All of the following are polysaccharides, except: A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers B. agar used to make solid culture media C. a cell's glycocalyx D. cellulose in certain cell walls E. prostaglandins in inflammation 25. What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails? A. fatty acids B. glycerol C. phosphate D. alcohol E. All of the choices are correct. 26. An amino acid contains all of the following except: A. an amino group B. a carboxyl group C. a variable R group D. a carbon atom E. a nitrogenous base 27. Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA? A. contains ribose B. contains adenine C. contains thymine D. contains uracil E. contains nucleotides 28. ATP is best described as A. an enzyme. B. a double helix. C. an electron carrier. D. the energy molecule of cells. E. All of the choices are correct. 29. Which is not true about enzymes? A. found in all cells B. are catalysts C. participate in the cell's chemical reactions D. can be denaturated by heat and other agents E. have high-energy bonds between phosphates 30. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure? A. valine B. cysteine C. serine D. alanine E. tyrosine 31. The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid for protein synthesis is A. rRNA. B. DNA. C. tRNA. D. mRNA. E. ATP.

  18. Page 18
    Read page 18 as text

    32. The purine bases in nucleic acids include A. thymine and cytosine. B. guanine and adenine. C. cytosine and guanine. D. adenine and thymine. E. ribose and deoxyribose. 33. A weak, attractive force between nearby molecules is called a/an A. hydrogen bond. B. covalent bond. C. ionic bond. D. peptide bond. E. glycosidic bond. 34. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? A. amino acids B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms C. nitrogen and phosphorus D. fatty acids E. carbon atoms 35. C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6 → C 12 H 22 O 11 + H 2 O represents A. formation of a peptide bond. B. a decomposition reaction. C. denaturation. D. formation of a polysaccharide. E. dehydration synthesis. 36. The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses. A. neutrons B. protons C. protons plus electrons D. neutrons plus protons E. electrons plus protons 37. If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 14 E. impossible to determine 38. The neutrons of an atom are A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals. 39. Which of the following represents an exchange reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. X + Y → XYD D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY E. None of the choices are correct.

  19. Page 19
    Read page 19 as text

    40. Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out? A. 0.4 grams B. 4.0 grams C. 40 grams D. 400 grams E. None of the choices are correct. 41. How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6? A. 3 B. 10 C. 1000 D. 36 E. 63 42. Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products? A. lactose B. sucrose C. maltose D. glucose E. fructose 43. Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals? A. glycogen B. maltose C. starch D. cellulose E. galactose 44. All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except: A. they are insoluble in water B. they are a concentrated source of energy C. when they are unsaturated they are solid D. they dissolve in nonpolar solvents E. they are digested by lipases 45. The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n): A. glycosidic bond B. peptide bond C. ester bond D. ionic bond E. hydrogen bond 46. The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of: A. primary structures B. secondary structures C. tertiary structures D. quaternary structures E. gamma structures 47. The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the bases. A. covalent B. ionic C. Van der Waals D. double E. hydrogen

  20. Page 20
    Read page 20 as text

    48. Which of the following examples are NOT hydrophobic? A. Glucose B. Vegetable oil C. Butter D. Cholesterol E. Choices B, C, and D are correct 49. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. True False 50. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. True False 51. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds. True False 52. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. True False 53. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. True False 54. Elements have predictable chemical properties. True False 55. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. True False 56. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. True False 57. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. True False 58. All proteins are enzymes. True False 59. Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA. True False 60. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. True False 61. The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number. ________________________________________ 62. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____. ________________________________________ 63. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____. ________________________________________ 64. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium called a _____. ________________________________________ 65. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms. ________________________________________ 66. _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. ________________________________________

  21. Page 21
    Read page 21 as text

    67. A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. ________________________________________ 68. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____. ________________________________________ 69. During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA. ________________________________________ 70. In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progeny cells. ________________________________________ 71. Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results. 72. Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific biochemical by a microbial culture. 73. Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.

  22. Page 22
    Read page 22 as text

    74. Identify and provide specific examples of the classes of macromolecules that are associated with life.

  23. Page 23
    Read page 23 as text

    ch02 Key 1. C 2. E 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. E 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. E 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. E 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. E 25. A 26. E 27. C 28. D 29. E 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. E 36. B

  24. Page 24
    Read page 24 as text

    37. C 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. E 48. A 49. FALSE 50. FALSE 51. TRUE 52. FALSE 53. TRUE 54. TRUE 55. FALSE 56. TRUE 57. TRUE 58. FALSE 59. TRUE 60. FALSE 61. mass 62. ions 63. nucleus 64. solutes or solvent 65. carbon 66. Peptide 67. saturated 68. nucleic acids 69. messenger 70. asexual 71. 72. 73. 74.

  25. Page 25
  26. Page 26
    Read page 26 as text

    ch02 Summary Category # of Questions ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1 ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translatio n differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. 6 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 72 ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 7 Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. 7 Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life. 1 Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. 5 Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. 1 Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements. 6 Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects. 1 Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. 1 Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and know some examples. 1 Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define what macromolecules, polymers, and monomers are. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. 5 Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. 7 Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. 8 Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. 3 Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. 5 Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases. 7 Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. 5 Talaro - Chapter 02 74 Topic: Basic Chemistry 37 Topic: Biochemistry 39

  27. Page 27
    Read page 27 as text

    ch03 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification. 2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. petri dish. E. gelatin. 3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination. 4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium 5. A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium 7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential.

  28. Page 28
    Read page 28 as text

    8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E . coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate B. spread plate C. pour plate D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct 10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. blood agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium. 11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. 12. A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. 13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing 14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus

  29. Page 29
    Read page 29 as text

    15. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus? A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia 16. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycolic acid E. peptone 17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct 18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece 19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X 20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 μm except A. 0.2 μm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 μm. D. 0.3 μm. E. 2.0 μm. 21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A. illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of the choices are correct.

  30. Page 30
    Read page 30 as text

    22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron. 23. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electron's to produce a specimen image. B. is a type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. 28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria . B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. 29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast

  31. Page 31
    Read page 31 as text

    30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed stained smear. C. Gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain. 31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. kill them. B. secure them to the slide. C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. 32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ____________. A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains 33. Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. 34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining. 35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are A. synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of the choices are correct. 36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. nonsynthetic E. selective 37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic.

307 more pages in the full document

Unlock it once and it stays in your library, ready to chat with or turn into flashcards.

Unlock the full document

More Microbiology study materials

See all

Study this document with CramX

Once it is in your library, every tool can work from it.