Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition

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ch01Student: ___________________________________________________________________________1.Disease-causing microorganisms are calledA. decomposers.B. prokaryotes.C. pathogens.D. eukaryotes.E. fermenters.2.The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are calledA. decomposers.B. prokaryotes.C. pathogens.D. eukaryotes.E. fermenters.3.The microorganisms that donothave a nucleus in their cells are calledA. decomposers.B. prokaryotes.C. pathogens.D. eukaryotes.E. fermenters.4.When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called3-7-2013A. bioremediation.B. genetic engineering.C. epidemiology.D. immunology.E. taxonomy.5.Which of the following arenotconsidered microorganisms?A. mosquitoesB. protozoaC. bacteriaD. virusesE. fungi6.All microorganisms are best defined as organisms thatA. cause human disease.B. lack a cell nucleus.C. are infectious particles.D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.E. can only be found growing in laboratories.

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7.Which activity is an example of biotechnology?A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to killcompetitorsB. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteriaC. humans using yeast to make beer andwineD.Mycobacterium tuberculosisin the lungs causing tuberculosisE. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community8.Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other majorgroups of microorganisms?A. cause human diseaseB. lack a nucleusC. cannot be seen without a microscopeD. contain genetic materialE. lack cell structure9.The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganismswasA. Francesco Redi.B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.C. Louis Pasteur.D. Joseph Lister.E. Robert Koch.10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove thatA. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.D. microorganisms could cause disease.E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.11. Which of the following isnota process in the scientific method?A. belief in a preconceived ideaB. formulate a hypothesisC. systematic observationD. laboratory experimentationE. development of a theory12. Spontaneous generation is the belief thatA. germs cause infectious diseases.B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.E. living things arise from nonliving matter.13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish thatA. microbes are found on dust particles.B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.

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14. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?A. SpeciesB. PhylumC. KingdomD. GenusE. Family15. Which of the following is a scientific name?A. bacteriaB. ProtistaC. speciesD.Bacillus subtilisE. bacilli16. Taxonomy doesnotinvolveA. nomenclature.B. classification.C. taxa.D. identification.E. Koch's postulates.17. The smallest and most significant taxon isA. Genus.B. Species.C. Kingdom.D. Family.E. Phylum.18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is calledA. biotechnology.B. genetics.C. recombinant DNA.D. phylogeny.E. taxonomy.19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working onA. determining evolutionary relatedness.B. bioremediation.C. recombinant DNA.D. nomenclature.E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease.20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In whichkingdom will it likely be classified?A. MoneraB. ProtistaC. FungiD. AnimaliaE. Plantae21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example ofworking in the field ofA. food microbiology.B. epidemiology.C. agricultural microbiology.D. genetic engineering.E. biotechnology.

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22. Helminths areA. bacteria.B. protozoa.C. molds.D. parasitic worms.E. infectious particles.23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis,exceptA. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material.C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere.D. it is fueled by light.E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food.24. Organisms called parasites areA. always classified in the kingdom Monera.B. always harmful to their host.C. the decomposers in ecosystems.D. always viruses.E. free-living.25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery wasA. Joseph Lister.B. Ignaz Semmelweis.C. Robert Koch.D. Louis Pasteur.E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacteriumBacillus anthracis?A. Joseph ListerB. Ignaz SemmelweisC. Robert KochD. Louis PasteurE. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek27. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):A. family, order, classB. family, genus, speciesC. genus, species, familyD. class, phylum, orderE. kingdom, domain, phylum28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,A. the species name is capitalized.B. the species name is placed first.C. the species name can be abbreviated.D. both genus and species names are capitalized.E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.29. The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are):A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur.B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.C. Carl Woese and George Fox.D. Robert Whittaker.E. Francesco Redi.

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30. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdomA. Monera.B. Protista.C. Mycetae.D. Plantae.E. Animalia.31. Which kingdom doesnotcontain any eukaryotes?A. MoneraB. ProtistaC. MycetaeD. PlantaeE. Animalia32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?A. bacteria and fungiB. bacteria andvirusesC. algae and virusesD. protists and fungiE. all organisms are decomposers33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide isA. HIV/AIDS.B. stroke.C. heart disease.D. cancer.E. malaria.34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?A. diarrheal diseasesB. tuberculosisC. malariaD. septicemiaE. influenza35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes,exceptA. they are smaller than eukaryotes.B. they lack a nucleus.C. they are less complex than eukaryotes.D. they have organelles.E. they are found nearly everywhere.36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases,exceptA. the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.B. human encroachment on wild habitats.C. changes in agricultural practices.D. populations are more mobile.37. Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?A. Joseph ListerB. Ignaz SemmelweisC. Robert KochD. Ferdinand CohnE. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

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38. Which of the following is the correct way to type the scientific name of this bacterium?A. Staph AureusB. Staphylococcus AureusC.Staphylococcus aureusD. Staphylococcus AureusE. S. Aureus39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?A. a human's large intestineB. in a hot springC. a pondD. a sewage treatment plantE. a beer production facility40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is calledA. bioremediation.B. genetic engineering.C. epidemiology.D. immunology.E. taxonomy.41. Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?A. gastric ulcersB. female infertilityC. coronary artery diseaseD. cervical cancerE. All of the choices are correct.42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there.A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genusPseudomonasto breakdown the cyanide used by a gold mining company. This use of bacteria is a good example of ____.A. BioremediationB. ImmunologyC. AstromicrobiologyD. British physiologyE. Epidemiology43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who isbroken out in hives and experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?A. Agricultural MicrobiologyB. EpidemiologyC. BiotechnologyD. ImmunologyE. Industrial Microbiology44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called ___.A. Strict aerobesB. Strict anaerobesC. SaprobesD. PredatorsE. Parasites45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members ofthe same kingdom.TrueFalse

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46. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.TrueFalse47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.TrueFalse48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.TrueFalse49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion yearsbefore eukaryotes appeared.TrueFalse50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world.TrueFalse51. The term sterile means free of all life forms.TrueFalse52. All microorganisms are parasites.TrueFalse53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of avariable in the study.TrueFalse54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account forwhat has been observed or measured.TrueFalse55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.TrueFalse56. A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory.TrueFalse57. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.TrueFalse58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.TrueFalse59. The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.________________________________________60. _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functionalchanges over long periods of time.________________________________________61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____.________________________________________62. _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a proteincovering.________________________________________63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of thehypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.________________________________________

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64. Discuss what might be three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimentalconsequences of killing all microorganisms on the earth.65. Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world.66. Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneousgeneration.

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ch01 Key1. C2. A3. B4. B5. A6. D7. C8. E9. B10. C11. A12. E13. B14. C15. D16. E17. B18. D19. A20. B21. B22. D23. A24. B25. A26. C27. B28. E29. C30. B31. A32. A33. A34. C35. D36. A

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37. D38. C39. B40. A41. E42. A43. D44. C45. TRUE46. TRUE47. FALSE48. FALSE49. TRUE50. FALSE51. TRUE52. FALSE53. FALSE54. TRUE55. FALSE56. TRUE57. FALSE58. TRUE59. taxonomy60. Evolution61. microorganisms62. Viruses63. deductive64.65.66.

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ch01 SummaryCategory# of QuestionsASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from earlyprokaryotic cells.1ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and thefrequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.1ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees.18ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).5ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.1ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities.2ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.6ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.2ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).2ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by theirmetabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).5ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.1ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means.3ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.1ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.1ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.3ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.5ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutralor detrimental ways.16ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).3ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.4ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method.6ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations.1ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format.2ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phasecontrast).2ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological).1ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution19ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function12ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways9ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow1ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems22ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms7ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking9ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills3General Viral Properties1Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology.11Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies.4Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins.4Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earths ecosystems.6Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes.4Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products.5

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Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease.9Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases.3Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of microbiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease.8Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory.6Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification.4Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy.6Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name.5Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and its use in studying organisms.4Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the majorgroups of microorganisms fall on these trees.4Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature.5Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name1Talaro - Chapter 0166Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering1Topic: Cellular Organization2Topic: Epidemiology2Topic: Food Microbiology1Topic: Helminths2Topic: History of Microbiology13Topic: Hypersensitivities1Topic: Microbial Roles21Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology1Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms27Topic: Viral structure1

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ch02Student: ___________________________________________________________________________1.Anything that occupies space and has mass is calledA. an electron.B. living.C. matter.D. energy.E. space.2.The electrons of an atom areA. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.B. found in the nucleus.C. used to determine atomic number.D. positively charged.E. moving in pathways called orbitals.3.All of the following pertain to146CexceptitA. has 6 protons.B. has 6 electrons.C. has 14 neutrons.D. is an isotope of carbon.E. mass number is 14.4.The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are theA. electrons.B. protons.C. neutrons.D. protons and neutrons.E. protons and electrons.5.Cations areA. charged subatomic particles.B. atoms that have gained electrons.C. radioactive isotopes.D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.E. atoms without protons.6.Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in theirA. neutron number.B. electron number.C. proton number.D. atomic number.E. chemical properties.7.What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?A. 2B. 4C. 8D. 18E. 32

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8.Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/anA. ion.B. isotope.C. element.D. electrolyte.E. molecule.9.What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom3216S?A. 2B. 6C. 8D. 16E. 3210. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bondedA. identical atoms.B. carbon atoms.C. ions.D. atoms of different electronegativity.E. atoms of identical electronegativity.11. Reactions involving electron release are called ______ reactions.A. oxidation.B. reduction.C. ionization.D. decomposition.E. dissolution.12. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?A. AB→A + BB. A + B→ABC. AB + XY→AX +BYD. AB + XY↔AX + BYE. None of the choices are correct.13. The important solvent associated with living things isA. carbon dioxide.B. sodium chloride.C. ethyl alcohol.D. benzene.E. water.14. Which term doesnotbelong in this list?A. lactic acidB. vinegarC. hydrogen ion donorD. pH 8E. acidic15. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9A. is more basic.B. has no OH-ions.C. has more H+ions.D. has a higher pH.E. All of the choices are correct.

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16. What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common?A. all are saltsB. all are acidsC. all are gasesD. all are inorganicE. all are solutes17. Which of the following functional groups ismismatchedto the organic compound?A. phosphate - carbohydratesB. sulfhydryl - proteinsC. amino - proteinsD. hydroxyl - alcoholsE. carboxyl - fatty acids18. The building blocks of an enzyme areA. nucleotides.B. glycerol and fatty acids.C. monosaccharides.D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids.E. amino acids.19. All of the following are monosaccharidesexceptA. glucose.B. glycogen.C. fructose.D. ribose.E. deoxyribose.20. All of the following are lipidsexcept:A. cholesterolB. starchC. phospholipidD. waxE. triglyceride21. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms.A. 10, 5B. 5, 10C. 5, 5D. 10, 10E. 2, 122. One nucleotide containsA. one phosphate.B. one pentose.C. one nitrogen base.D. All of the choices are correct.E. None of the choices are correct.23. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?A. triglyceridesB. monosaccharidesC. polypeptidesD. polysaccharidesE. ATP

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24. All of the following are polysaccharides,except:A. dextran in some bacterial slime layersB. agar used to make solid culture mediaC. a cell's glycocalyxD. cellulose in certain cell wallsE. prostaglandins in inflammation25. What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?A. fatty acidsB. glycerolC. phosphateD. alcoholE. All of the choices are correct.26. An amino acid contains all of the followingexcept:A.an amino groupB. a carboxyl groupC. a variable R groupD. a carbon atomE. a nitrogenous base27. Which pertains to DNA butnotto RNA?A. contains riboseB. contains adenineC. contains thymineD. contains uracilE. contains nucleotides28. ATP is best described asA. an enzyme.B. a double helix.C. an electron carrier.D. the energy molecule of cells.E. All of the choices are correct.29. Which isnottrue about enzymes?A. found in all cellsB. are catalystsC. participate in the cell's chemical reactionsD. can be denaturated by heat and other agentsE. have high-energy bonds between phosphates30. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?A. valineB. cysteineC. serineD. alanineE. tyrosine31. The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid for protein synthesis isA. rRNA.B. DNA.C. tRNA.D. mRNA.E. ATP.

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32. The purine bases in nucleic acids includeA. thymine and cytosine.B. guanine and adenine.C. cytosine and guanine.D. adenine and thymine.E. ribose and deoxyribose.33. A weak, attractive force between nearby molecules is called a/anA. hydrogen bond.B. covalent bond.C. ionic bond.D. peptide bond.E. glycosidic bond.34. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution.If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following wouldbe found in the beaker of DNA butnotin the beaker with glucose?A. amino acidsB. hydrogen and oxygen atomsC. nitrogen and phosphorusD. fatty acidsE. carbon atoms35. C6H12O6+ C6H12O6→C12H22O11+ H2O representsA. formation of a peptide bond.B. a decomposition reaction.C. denaturation.D. formation of a polysaccharide.E. dehydration synthesis.36. The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses.A. neutronsB. protonsC. protons plus electronsD. neutrons plus protonsE. electrons plus protons37. If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?A. 6B. 7C. 8D. 14E. impossible to determine38. The neutrons of an atom areA. always equal to the number of protons in an atom.B. found in the nucleus.C. used to determine atomic number.D. positively charged.E. moving in pathways called orbitals.39. Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?A. AB→A + BB. A + B→ABC. X + Y→XYDD. AB + XY↔AX + BYE. None of the choices are correct.

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40. Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out?A. 0.4 gramsB. 4.0 gramsC. 40 gramsD. 400 gramsE. None of the choices are correct.41. How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6?A.3B. 10C. 1000D. 36E. 6342. Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products?A. lactoseB. sucroseC. maltoseD. glucoseE. fructose43. Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?A. glycogenB. maltoseC. starchD. celluloseE. galactose44. All of the following are correct about triglycerides,except:A. they are insoluble in waterB. they are a concentrated source of energyC. when they are unsaturated they are solidD. they dissolve in nonpolar solventsE. they are digested by lipases45. The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n):A. glycosidic bondB. peptide bondC. ester bondD. ionic bondE. hydrogen bond46. The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of:A. primary structuresB. secondary structuresC. tertiary structuresD. quaternary structuresE. gamma structures47. The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between thebases.A. covalentB. ionicC. Van der WaalsD. doubleE. hydrogen

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48. Which of the following examples are NOT hydrophobic?A. GlucoseB. Vegetable oilC. ButterD. CholesterolE. Choices B, C, and D are correct49. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.TrueFalse50. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.TrueFalse51. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.TrueFalse52. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.TrueFalse53. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules.TrueFalse54. Elements have predictable chemical properties.TrueFalse55. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.TrueFalse56. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.TrueFalse57. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.TrueFalse58. All proteins are enzymes.TrueFalse59. Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA.TrueFalse60. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization.TrueFalse61. The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number.________________________________________62. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____.________________________________________63. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____.________________________________________64. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in adissolving medium called a _____.________________________________________65. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.________________________________________66. _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.________________________________________

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67. A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2hydrogens.________________________________________68. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____.________________________________________69. During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA.________________________________________70. In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progenycells.________________________________________71. Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they targetprokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect thecell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results.72. Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specificbiochemical by a microbial culture.73. Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.

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74. Identify and provide specific examples of the classes of macromolecules that are associated with life.

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ch02 Key1. C2. E3. C4. A5. D6. A7. C8. E9. B10. D11. A12. B13. E14. D15. C16. D17. A18. E19. B20. B21. A22. D23. D24. E25. A26. E27. C28. D29. E30. B31. C32. B33. A34. C35. E36. B

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37. C38. B39. D40. C41. C42. A43. A44. C45. B46. B47. E48. A49. FALSE50. FALSE51. TRUE52. FALSE53. TRUE54. TRUE55. FALSE56. TRUE57. TRUE58. FALSE59. TRUE60. FALSE61. mass62. ions63. nucleus64. solutesorsolvent65. carbon66. Peptide67. saturated68. nucleic acids69. messenger70. asexual71.72.73.74.

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Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 26 preview image

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ch02 SummaryCategory# of QuestionsASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.1ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.6ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function72ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow7Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain.7Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes.4Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.3Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life.1Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled.4Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds.5Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound.1Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.4Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.6Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.4Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects.1Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions.3Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.4Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic.1Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels.4Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds.3Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and know some examples.1Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define what macromolecules, polymers, and monomers are.3Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates.5Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made.7Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells.3Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol.4Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells.3Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form.8Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.4Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins.3Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA.5Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.7Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA.5Talaro - Chapter 0274Topic: Basic Chemistry37Topic: Biochemistry39

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 27 preview image

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ch03Student: ___________________________________________________________________________1.The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the followingexceptA. inoculation.B. incubation.C. infection.D. isolation.E. identification.2.All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological mediaexceptA. broth.B. enriched.C. agar.D. petri dish.E. gelatin.3.The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient mediumisA. isolation.B. inoculation.C. immunization.D. infection.E. contamination.4.Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?A. broth mediumB. differential mediumC. selective mediumD. solid mediumE. assay medium5.A pure culture contains onlyA. one species of microorganism.B. bacteria.C. a variety of microbes from one source.D. All of the choices are correct.E. None of the choices are correct.6.Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?A. a pure cultureB. a mixed cultureC. a solid mediumD. a liquid mediumE. a contaminated medium7.A microbiologist inoculatesStaphylococcusaureusinto a culture medium. Following incubation, bothStaphylococcusaureusandStaphylococcusepidermidisare determined to be growing in this culture.What is the most likely explanation?A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.B. The culture is contaminated.C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.D. The culture medium must be selective.E. The culture medium must be differential.

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 28 preview image

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8.A microbiologist inoculatesStaphylococcusepidermidisandEscherichiacoliinto a culture medium.Following incubation, only theE.coligrows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.B. The culture is contaminated.C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.D. The culture medium must be selective.E. The culture medium must be differential.9.Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on thesurface?A. streak plateB. spread plateC. pour plateD. All of the choices are correctE. None of the choices are correct10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria isA. blood agar.B. trypticase soy agar.C. mannitol salt agar.D. MacConkey medium.E. a reducing medium.11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrationsknown and reproducible would be termedA. complex.B. reducing.C. enriched.D. enumeration.E. synthetic.12. A reducing medium containsA. sugars that can be fermented.B. extra oxygen.C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors.D. substances that remove oxygen.E. inhibiting agents.13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on anobservable change in the colonies or in the medium?A. differentialB. selectiveC. enumerationD. enrichedE. reducing14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbeis she attempting to culture?A. fastidiousB. gram positiveC. anaerobeD. gram negativeE. virus

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 29 preview image

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15. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?A.SalmonellaB.StreptococcusC.NeisseriaD.StaphylococcusE.Escherichia16. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following wouldlikely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?A. NaClB. sheep red blood cellsC. bile saltsD. thioglycolic acidE. peptone17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities asseparate and distinct?A. resolving powerB. magnificationC. refractionD. All of the choices are correctE. None of the choices are correct18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?A. condenserB. objective lensC. ocular lensD. bodyE. nosepiece19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying powerof the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?A. 100XB. 950XC. 85XD. 850XE. 95X20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit ofresolution of 0.2 μmexceptA. 0.2 μm.B. 0.2 mm.C. 0.1 μm.D. 0.3 μm.E. 2.0 μm.21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governsA. illumination.B. resolution.C. magnification.D. size of the field.E. All of the choices are correct.

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 30 preview image

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22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a blackbackground isA. bright-field.B. dark-field.C. phase-contrast.D. fluorescence.E. electron.23. Which microscope doesnotuse light in forming the specimen image?A. bright-fieldB. dark-fieldC. phase-contrastD. fluorescenceE. electron24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?A. bright-fieldB. dark-fieldC. phase-contrastD. fluorescenceE. electron25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstainedcells based on their varying densities?A. bright-fieldB. dark-fieldC. phase-contrastD. fluorescenceE. electron26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background?A. bright-fieldB. dark-fieldC. phase-contrastD. fluorescenceE. electron27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscopeexceptitA. uses electron's to produce a specimen image.B. is a type of compound microscope.C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein.D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections.E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source.28. Which isincorrectabout chocolate agar?A. It can be used to cultivateNeisseria.B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.C. It has chocolate extract in it.D. It is an enriched medium.E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth overit?A. fluorescenceB. differential interference contrastC. scanning electronD. transmission electronE. phase-contrast

Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition - Page 31 preview image

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30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility isA. hanging drop.B. fixed stained smear.C. Gram stain.D. negative stain.E. flagellar stain.31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is toA. kill them.B. secure them to the slide.C. enlarge the cells.D. add contrast in order to see them better.E. see motility.32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ____________.A. are used on a wet mount of the specimenB. use heat to force the dye into cell structuresC. have outcomes based on cell wall differencesD. use a negative stain techniqueE. are differential stains33. Basic dyes areA. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.B. anionic.C. used in negative staining.D. repelled by cells.E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue.All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example ofA. negative staining.B. using an acidic dye.C. simple staining.D. using the acid-fast stain.E. capsule staining.35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts areA. synthetic.B. complex.C. reducing.D. enriched.E. All of the choices are correct.36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type ofmedia?A. syntheticB. reducingC. enrichedD. nonsyntheticE. selective37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are calledA. fastidious.B. pathogenic.C. harmless.D. anaerobic.E. aerobic.

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