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Blue Book NCLEX Review notes

This is a condensed NCLEX review guide covering essential nutrition facts, infant care practices, and Bell’s Palsy basics—perfect for quick nursing exam prep and memorization.

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    Bull BOOK NCLEX REVIEW NOTES MURSING*EXAM Svcceti

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    Blue Book NUTRITION Name the 5/6 essential nutrients Carbs, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water The major source of energy for the body is... Carbs Carbs provide ____ Kcalories per 1 gram 4 Sucrose is a sugar found in _______ anc _______ Fruits, veggies Lactose is a sugar found in? Milk What is glycogen? It is a stored formed of glucose/energy manufactured by the liver Is glycogen eaten in foods? NO ft is a stored form of glucose manufactured by the live f When the body does not receive enough carbs, it burns ____ & ___ . The most con centrated source of ene rgy for th e body is protein fats Fats ’ Fats provide ________ Kcalories per 1 gram 9 Fats carry vitamins A D E K The nutrient needed most for growth and repair of tissues is Protein (second best is Vrt C| Proteins provide __________Kcalories per 1 gram. 4 Vitamins and minerals provide energy for the body. |T/F) False— they are necessary for a body's chemical reactions Water is present in ALL body tissues. (T/F) True (even bone) tater a ccounts for to % of a n adLilt's tota 1 weig ht 50% to 60% f s i Name the four basic food groups tater accounts for ___ to ___96 of an infant's total weight Milkcheese meatlegumes vegeta blesfru'rts breadcereal 70 75 An individual is overweight if they are ___% above the ideal weight 16 An individual is obese if they weigh __96 above the ideal weight 20 INFANTS Can you use cotton swabs to dean the eyes, nares or ears of an infant? No, this is dangerous Can you use the same cotton ball/washckith edge for both eyes? No it would cross contaminate What temperature is appropriate for the water used to bathe an infant? 100-105 How should the temperature of the water be tested is no thermometer is available? 1 — Dropping wate r on inside surface of yo ur forearm When cleansing an infant's eye, cleanse from outer to inner canthus? No, inner to outer Should you retract the foreskin of a 5-week-old male, uncircumcised infant to dear sc the area? — W hen sp o nge-bath i ng wit h te oi d water the correct te m p is No, not until foreskin retracts naturally and without resistance— then it should be retracted, cleansed & replaced 9®6F The primary reason why an infant is draped during the bath is to provide privacy. T/F) False, the primary purpose of draping is to prevent chilling. You may use friction to remove vernix caseosa from an infant's skin. (T/F) False, it causes damage/bruising What solution is commonly used for care of umbilical cord? 7096 alcohol to promote drying (trend is toward soap fi. water) BELLS PALSY What cranial nerve is affected in Bell's Palsy? #7, facial nerve What is the #1 symptom of Bell's Palsy? Onesided (unilateral) facial paralysis Comp lete recovery from the pa ra lysis of Bel I's PaIsy s ho uId occur in to months. 4 to 6 1 In addition to the facial paralysis, the sense of ___ is also affected taste till the patient be able to close their eye on the affected side no G ive thre e ey e inte rventions for t he cl ient wit h Bell 's PaIsy Dark glasses, artificial tears, cover eye at night

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    MEN'5 PROSTATE As the prostate enlarges it compresses the ______ and causes urln ary ______ . Urethra, retention At what age does BPH occur? Men over 50 y/ o What does BPH stand for? Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy IN BPH the man has (intreased/decreased) frequency of urination Increased In BPH the force of the urinary stream is [increased/decreased) Decreased The man with BPH has a _________ -stream of urine Forked The man with BPH has hesitancy. What does this mean? Difficulty starting to void Will the man with BPH have enuresis, nocturia or hematuria? Enuresis—No Nocturia— Yes Hematuria—Maybe Enuresis 1n abi lity to cont ra 1 the flow of uline & invo luntary u tin ati o n What is the best way to screen men for BPH? Digital rectal Exam Should fluids be forced or restricted in BPH? Forced What does TURF stand for? Transurethral resection of the prostate The most radical prostate surgery is the _____ prostatectomy Perineal What type of diet is used in BPH? Acid Ash Acid Ash diet Decrease pH I makes urine acid) Chz, eggs, Meat, fish, oysters, poultry, Bread, Cereal, Whole Grains, Pastries, Cranberries, Prunes, Plums, Tomatoes, Peas, Com, Legumes. BLADDER Tx? What is the primary purpose of a 3-way continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) after TURP? To keep the catheter clear of clots and to drain urine W hat so lution is used for CBI? Normal saline (0.9 NaCI) How fast do you run the CBI? At whatever rate it takes to keep the urine flowing & free of clots What drug is used to treat bladder spasm?' BSD suppositories (Belladonna & Opiates) PROCTECTOMY Should you take a rectal temp after prostatectomy? Give stool softeners? No rectal temperatures, yes stool softeners You should call the MD after TURP when you see ______ thick ______, _____ clots, and _____ urine drainage on the dressing. Bright thick blood, persistent clots, persistent urine on dressing (don't call MD for transitory dots 3. urine on dressing.) If yo u see an increa se in bl ood content of uri ne comi ng out of the catheter, you would first ___________ . Pull ca ref u lly on t he cat hete r to a p p ly loca 1 p ressure on the prostate with the Foley balloon. If you see clots in the tubing, you would first _________ . 1nc teas e t he flow-rate What exercises should the post proctectomy patient do upon discharge? Why? Perineal exercises, start and stop stream of urine, because dribbling is a common but temporary problem post op Will the post proctectomy patient be impotent? If TURP, no impotence, if perineal prostatectomy, yes impotence FOLEY CARE How often should the drainage bag be emptied? Every S hours What is the most common problem due to catheterization? UTI What is the most common organism to cause UTI with catheterization? E. coli W hat is t he most common route for orga nisms to e nter the bladder when a catheterization is used? Up through the inside of the catheter in the days following catheterization Name foods that make acid urine Cranberry juice, apple juice [avoid citrus juices- they make alkaline urine | What is important about the level of the urinary drainage bag? Never have the bag at a higher level than the bladder. How is the catheter taped in a male client? To the lateral thigh or abdomen How is the catheter taped in = female client? To the upper thigh

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    What urinary pH prevents UT1? Acidity, low pH Should the drainage bag ever touch the floor? NO Is it ok to routinely irrigate indwelling catheters? NO What agents are best for catheter care? Soap Sc Water What is the most effective way to decrease UTI with catheters? Keep the drainage system closed, do not disconnect junction of tubing Give some signs of infection in a Foley catheter Cloudy urine, foul smelling urine, hematuria Is urinary incontinence an indication for catheterization? Give 3 appropriate indications for bladder catheterization? NO Urinary retention, to check for residual, to monitor hourly output What are the top 2 diagnoses for a client with a catheter? Which is#l? #1- Potential for infection; Potential impairment of urethral tissue integrity BLOOD PRESSURE What is systole? The M AX IM AL force of b lood o n arte ry wa Ils What is diastole? The LOWEST force of blood on artery walls Accurate blood pressure is obtained by using a cuff that has width of _________ the arm. Two-thirds Which artery Is most commonly used to measure blood pressure? Brachial Can the thigh EVER be used to obtain a blood pressure? Yes, but this is rare When pressure is auscultated the 1st sound heard is the ____ measurement. Systolic The change in the character of the sounds is known as the ____ 1st diastolic sound The cessation of sounds is known as the ________ 2nd diastolic sound W hen 2 values are given in a bl oo d press ure th e first is the _ _ _ measurement. Systolic When 2 values are given in a blood pressure, the bottom number stands for the change in sounds or cessation of sounds? Cessation of sounds What is the normal adult blood pressure? 120/80 Abnormally high blood pressure is callee ___________ Hypertension W hat is the pulse press u re? The difference between the systolic & diastolic BP If you deflate a cuff TOO SLOWLY, the reading will be too high or low? Why? High, venous congestion makes the arterial pressure higher (increases resistance; If you use too narrow of a cuff the reading will be too high or low? High Vas o const rict ion wi11 __________b lood press ure. Increase Vasodilation will blood pressure. Decrease Shock will __________blood pressure. Decrease Increased intracranial pressure will _____the pulse pressure Increase or widen If my blood pressure is 190/1ID, what is my pulse pressure? 80 mmHg BLOOD TRANSFUSION What blood test must be done before a transfusion? Type and cross match What does a type and cross match indicate? Whether the client's blood and donor blood are compatible. What should the nurse measure before starting a transfusion? Vital signs With what solution should blood be transfused? 0.9 normal saline How many nurses are required to check the blood? 2 nurses What happens when blood is administered with Dextrose IVs? If a transfusion reaction occurs what should the nurse do first? The cells clump together & don't flow well Stop the blood flow Si start running the saline How long can a unit of blc-od be on the unit before it must oe Less than 1/2 hour

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    What should the nurse do with the IV line if transfusion reaction is suspected? Keep it open with sali ne If a transfusion reaction is suspected, what two samples are collected and sent to the lab? Urine 3. blood If unit of blood is infused through a centra 1 line it mustbe ____ warmed Which of the following are signs of transfusion reaction? Bradycardia, Fever, Hives, Wheezing, Increased BP, Low Back Pain Low back pain, wheezing, fever, hives What are 3 types of transfusion reactions that can occur? Hemolytic, febrile, allergic What would you do l’ x if you suspected transfusion reaction? Stop the blood and start the saline What are the signs & symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion reaction? Shivering, HA, low back pain, increased pulse 3 respirations, decreasing BP, oliguria, hematuria What are the signs & symptoms of a febrile transfusion reaction? Low back pain, shaking HA, increasing temperature, confusion, hemoptysis What are the signs & symptoms of an allergic reaction to a transfusion? Hives- urticaria, wheezing, pruritus, joint pain, [arthralgia) Give 3 reasons for a blood transfusion Restore blood volume secondary to hemorrhage, maintain hemoglobin in anemia, replace specific blood components What does blood-typing mean? Check for surface antigen on the red blood cell When does typing and cross matching need to be done? Whenever a client gets a blood product. Its only good for 24 hours What does blood cross matching mean? Mixing a little of the client's blood with the donor blood and looking for agglutination. When are hemolytic transfusion reactions likely to occur? In the first 10 to 15 minutes When is a febrile reaction likely to occur? Within 30 minutes of beginning the transfusion What test identifies Rh factor? Coombs test detects antibodies to Rh What's the difference between whole blood & packed cells? Packed cells don't have nearly as much plasma or volume as whole blood does What would you do if the client had an increasing temperature 3. was to get blood? Call the MD because blood is often held with an elevated temperature How long should it take for one unit of blood to infuse? From one hour to three hours How long should you stay with the patient after beginning a transfusion? At least 15 to 30 minutes What blood type is the universal recipient? AB What blood type is the universal donor? □ What is the routine for vital sign measurement with a transfusion? Once before administration QL5 x 2 after administration is begun Q I x l after transfusion has stopoed What IV solution is hung with a blood transfusion? 0.9 normal saline (No glucose) What gauge needle is used with a blood transfusion? Large gauge, IS gauge What other things are appropriate after a reaction? Call MD, get a blood sample, get urine sample, monitor vitals, send blood to lab Can blood be given immediately after removal from refrigeration? No, it has to be warm e d first for only abo ut 20 to 30 m in BREASTFEEDING With what solution 3. when should a breast-feeding mother cleanse the areola? Plain water, before £ after each feeding For a woman who doesn't have retracted nipples, is towel drying or air drying better? Air drying of nipples is best The goal is for the infant to breast feed for _____ min per side. 20 How does the mother break the suction of the breast feeding infant? She inserts her little finger into the side of the infant's mouth When should the breastfeeding infant be burped? After feeding from each breast Assuming no mastitis, on which side should the breastfeeding begin? Begin nursing on the side that the baby finished on the last feeding

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    How long can breast milk be refrigerated? 24 hours How long can breast milk be frozen? S months In what type of contai ner sho uId b reast mi Ik b e stored? Sealed plastic bags Can ya u m icrowave frozen bre ast m il k to warm /th aw it? Never Which two nutrients is breast milk lower in? Fluoride and iron What should you tell a breast-feeding mother about her milk supply when she goes home from the hospital? Milk should come in postpartum day 3. Breastfeed every 2-3 hours to establish good milk supply. Can a woman on oral contraceptives breastfed? Should not use OCP during the first 5 wks after birth because the hormones may decrease milk supply. Estrogen is not recommended. Non-horrroral methods are recommended. Remember, breastfeeding is an unreliable contraceptive. BUERGERS What is another name for Buerger's disease? Thromboangltis obliterans Which extremities are affected by It? Lower only Which sex does it affect the most often? Males The group with the highest incidence of Buerger's disease is Smokers Upon walking the patient with buerger's experiences _______ Intermittent Claudication What is intermittent claudication? Pain in calf upon walking BURNS A first-degree burn is pale or red? Red A first-degree burn has vesicles [T/F)? False A second-degree burn is pale or red? Red A second-degree burn is dull or shiny? Shiny A second-degree burn has vesides. (T/F) True A second-degree burn is wet or dry? Wet A third-degree burn is white or red? White A third-degree burn is wet or dry? Dry A third-degree burn is hard or soft? hard Of l rt , 2 r i and 3 rd degree burns which has less pain? Why? Third degree burns, nerve damage has occurred Fdr what p urpose do you use the ru le of ni nes ? To estimate the percentage of body surface burned; is NOT used for children. In the rule of nines, the head and neck receive ____: each arm rece ives _______. 9%, 9% In the rule of nines, the front trunk gets _______ , the posterior trunk gets ____, each leg gets ____ and the genitalia gets ____ . 18%, 18%, 18%, 1% What is the only IM given to a burn patient? Tetanus toxoid- if they had a previous Immunization; tetanus antitoxin- if they have never been Immunized before [or immune globulin) In the emergent phase do you cover burns? (in the field) Ves, with anything clean and dry. Should you remove adhered clothing? No Name the 3 phases of burn Shock, diuretic, recovery Fluid moves from the _____ to the ______ in the SHOCK phase. Bloodstream, interstitial space The shock phase lasts for the T : ___ to ____ hours after a burn. 24 to 48 hours During shock phase of a burn is potassium increased or decreased? Why? Increased, because of all the cells damaged- the K+ is released from damaged cells. What acid-base disorder is seen in the shock phase of a bum? PJetabolic Acidosis What is the #1 therapy In the shock phase? Fluid repla cement/resuscitati on W hat is t he si m pie formula for ca leulatin g fl uid repla ceme nt needs in the first 24 hours? 3cc X Kg X % burned per day

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    If the MD orders 2,B00 co of fluid in the first 24 hours after a bum, one- _______ of it must be infused in the first 8 hours. Half (or 1,430 cc) What blood value will dictate IV flow rate? The hematocrit How will you know the patient has entered the fluid mobilization or diuretic phase? The urine output will increase How long does the fluid mobilization or diuretic phase of a bum last? 2 to S days In the diuretic phase, K+ levels fall or rise? Fall- remember diuresis always causes hypokalemia If the nurse accidentally runs the IVs at the shock phase rate during the diuretic phase the patient will experience? Pulmonary edema The burn patient will be on ____urine output & dally _____ . Hourly, weight Sulfamyon cream __________. Burns Silver nitrate cream __________ the _______ Stains, skin Pain medications should be administered __________ before __________ care. 30 minutes, wound care When using silver nitrate, the dressings must be kept ______ . Wet What is Curlings ulcer? Why is it a problem in burn patients? What drug prevents it? It is a stress Gl ulcer; you get these with any severe physical stress. Tagamet, Zantac, Pepcid (any H2 receptor antagonist), Protonix Prilosec ABRUPTION PLACENTA In Abruptio Placenta, the placenta ________ from the uterine wall ___________. Separates, prematurely Abruptio Placenta usually occurs in (prima/multi) gravida over the age of ___________ Multigravida, 35 (HTN, trauma, cocaine) How is t he bl eeding of Ab rupti o Placenta diffe rent from that in placenta previa? usually pain; bleeding is more voluminous in previa If you are the nurse starting the IV on the client with Abruptia Placenta, what gauge needle should you use? IB (in preparation to give blood if necessary) How often should you measure the vital signs, vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate during Abruptio Placenta>? Q5-15 minutes for bleeding and maternal VS, continuous fetal monitoring, deliver at earliest sign of fetal distress How is an infant delivered when Abruptio Placenta is present? Usually C-sectlon Is there a higher or lower incidence of fetal death with Abruptio Placenta compared to Placenta Previa? Higher 1n what tri mester does Abruptio P lace nta most commonly occur? 3rd POSIONING At what age are accidental poisonings most common? 2 years old If a chilld swallows a potentially poisonous substance, what should be done first? Call medical help Should vomiting be induced after ingestion of gasoline? No- not for gas or any other petroleum products When taking a child to the ER after accidental poisoning has occurred what must accompany the child to the ER? the suspected poison An elderly d ent is a (high/low) risk for accidental poisoning? W hat a oo ut a schoo1 age ch i Id ? high - due to poor eyesight, high What types of chemicals cause burns to oral mucosa when ingested? Lye, ca u Stic c lea r e rs Children at highest risk for seizure activity after ingestion are those who have swallowed ________ and _________ drugs, insecticides Ca n Impaired skin integrity eve r be an appro priate nursln g diagnosis when poisoning has occurred? Yes, when lye or caustic agents have been ingested

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    I ACNE What is the causative organism of acne? P. acnes (Prop ion i bacterium acres) W hat structures are involved! In acne vulgaris? The sebaceous glands Name 3 drugs given for acne? Vitamin A, Antibiotics, Retinoids □ ieta ry ir*disc rations and unclean liness are causes of acne ? False What are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris? Heredity,. Bacterial, Hormonal Uncleanliness is a cause of acne? False What is the most common retinoid given to people with acne? Accutane Accuta n e is a n a nalog of w hlch vitam i n ? Vitamin A What is most common side effect of Accutane? And what Is most important in health teaching in administration? Inflammation of the lips; Causes birth defects What is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne? Tetracycline How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is being treated? 4 to 5 weeks Does stress make acne worse? Yes How often should the client with acne wash his face each day? Twice a day What instructions do you give to a client taking tetracycline? Take it on an empty stomach 3. avoid sunlight (photosensitivity) What are comedones? Blackheads and white heads HIV/AIDS W hat viru s ca uses Al DS? HIV - Human immunodeficiency virus The AIDS virus invades helpe p ____________ . T-lymphocytes (or CD4 cells) AIDS is transmissible through what four routs? blood, sexual contact, breast feeding, across placenta in utero HIV is present in all body fluids? Yes, but rot transmitted by all, only blood, semen & breast milk Name the 5 risk groups for AIDS Homo/bisexual men, IV drug users, hemophiliacs, heterosexual partners of infected people, newborn children of infected women What is the first test for HIV antibodies? EUSA What test confirms the ELISA? Western Blot Which test is the best indicator of the progress of HIV disease? CD4 count A CD4 count of under ________Is associated with the onset of Al DS- related symptoms. 500 A CD4 count of under ________Is associated with the onset of o p portu nistlc infections. 200 Give 5 symptoms of HIV disease. Anorexia, fatigue, weakness, night sweats, fever, diarrhea Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero- positivity? NRTl's (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors) and Pl's (protease inhibitors) They prevent viral replication. NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase Inhibitors) ar antiviral drug used against HIV (is incorporated into the DNA of the virus and stops the building process; results in incomplete DNA that cannot create a new virus; often used in combination with other drugs) Pl's (Protease inhibitors) most potent of antiviral meds, inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral replication, does not cure but slows progression of AIDS and prolongs life, used prophylactically, used in AIDS to decrease viral load and opportunistic infections What do NRTl's and Pl's do? They prevent viral replication What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTl's and Pl's for HIV? A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15 years) What is the most common NRTI used? AZT (zidovudine) What is the most challenging aspect of combination of drug therapy for HIV disease? The number of pills that must be taken in 24 hrs can be overwhelming. The frequency also makes it hard to ramember- an alarm wristwatch is used. Clients with AIDS Igain/lose) weight? lose

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    The typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused by ________________. Pneumocystic carinli What type of oral/esophagea infections do AIDS patients get? Candida What is the #1 cancer that AIDS patients get? Kaposi's sarcoma Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer of the ___________ . Skin T/F: AIDS patients get lymphomas? True What lab findings are present in AIDS? Decreased RBC's, WBC's and platelets If the AIDS pati ent has leukopenia they will be on __________ protective (reverse) isolation Define Leukopenia decrease in wbc, indicated viral infection W i t h o u t leukopenia the AIDS patient will be on __________ precautions. Standard precautions or blood and body fluid precautions When the AIDS patient has a low platelet count, what is indicated? bleeding precautions; No IM's, no rectal temperatures, other bleeding precautions Does AIDS require a single room? Yes - if WBC counts are low When do you need a gown with AIDS? If you are going to get contaminated with secretions When do you need a mask with AIDS? Not usually unless they have an infection caused by an airborne bug When do you need goggles with AIDS? Suctioning, central line start, arterial procedures If an AIDS patient's blood contaminates a co u nte r-to p, with what do you clean? 1:10 solution of bleach and water Are all articles used by AIDS patients double-bagged? no - only those contaminated with secretions Can AIDS patients leave the floor? Yes, unless WBC's are very low ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS Is dietary protein limited in AGN? Not usually, however if there is severe azotemia then it may be restricted Define azotemia? nitrogenous wastes in the blood (increased creatinine, BUN) What is the best indicator of renal function? The serum creatinine Do people recover from AGN? Yes, the vast majority of all clients recover completely from it How can AGN be prevented? By ha vi ng a II s o re t hroats cultured fo r stre p and treati ng a ny strep infections What is the most important intervention in treating AGN? Bedrest - they can walk if hematuria, edema & hypertension are gone. What is the most common dietary restriction for AGN? Moderate sodium restriction. Fluid restriction is #2 if edema is severe. What are the urinalysis findings on AGN? Hematuria Proteinuria +3 to +4 Specific gravity Up How long after strep infection does AGN develop? 2 to 3 weeks after initial infection How do you assess fluid excess in the child with AGN? Daily weight What organism causes acute glomerular nephritis? Group A beta hemolytic strep What happens to the kidney in AGN? It becomes clogged with antigen-antibody complexes which then cause inflammation and loss of function. How often are vital sign measurements taker in AGN? Q4 hours with blood pressure Will the client have hypo Dr hypertension with AGN? Why? Hypertension, because of fluid retention What are the first signs of AGN? Puffiness of face, dark urine CHILDHOOD DEVELOPMENT What are the three adult stages of development called early adulthood, middle adulthood and later adulthood What is the age range for early adulthood? 19 to 35 years of age What is the age range for middle adulthood? 35 to 64 years of age What is the age range for late adulthood? 64 years of age to death What is the developmental task for early adulthood? Intimacy vs. Isolation W hat is t he deve lopm e nta 1 ta sk for middle adulthood ? Generativity vs. stagnation.

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    Intimacy vs. Isolation Erikson's stage in which individuals form deeply personal relationships, marry, begin families Generativity vs. Stagnation Erikson's stage of social development in which middle-aged peo pl e begin to d evote the mseIves m o re to fulfilling one 's potential and doing public service What is the developmental task for later adulthood? Ego Integrity vs. Despair Ego Integrity vs. Despair (Erikson; People in late adulthood either achieve a sense of integrity of the self by accepting the lives they have lived or yield to despair that their lives cannot be relived Time is too short to start another life, though 1 wish 1 could," is an example of ___________. despair “If 1 had to do it over aga 'r r I'd life my life just about the same," is an example of _____________ Ego Integrity AMPUTATIONS What does AKA mean? Above the knee amputation What does BKA mean? Below the knee amputation If the patient had an AKA they should lie _ _ several times per day Prone (to prevent flexion contracture| The #1 contracture problem in AKA is ______of the _____ Flexion, hip What will prevent hip flexion contracture after AKA? Lying prone several times a day What is the £*1contracture problem after BKA? Flexion of the knee How do you prevent flexion contracture of the knee after B<A? Remind the patient to straightentheir knee constantly while standing To prevent post-op swelling, the stump should be _____ . elevated How long should the stump be elevated to prevent post op swelling? 12—24 hours How often should a stump be washed? Daily When a stump is wrapped, the bandage should be tightest ____ and loosest ______ . distally (far from the center), proximally (neareast to the point) If after a right BKA, the client c/o pain in his right tow, he is experiencing ____________ . phantom limb sensation (which is normal) When will phantom limb sensation subside? 1n a few mont hs Name ways to toughen a stump so it will not breakdown due to the wear of the prosthetic leg? push the stump against the wall, hitting it with a pillow ANEURYSM An aneurysm is an abnormal ___ of the wall of a|nJ artery. widening (it is also weakening) What artery is widened in a thoracic aneurysm? the aorta An aneurysm can result from an ____and from _____ . infection, syphilis The most common symptom of abdominal aneurysm is: a pulsating mass above the umbilicus Which aneurysm is most likely to have no symptoms? the abdominal is most often "silent" Which vital signs are most important to measure in clients with aneurysm? The pulse and blood pressure An aneurysm will most affect which of the following, the blood p ressure or the puIse? the pulse (many times the aneurysm will rupture, and much blood will be lost before the blood pressure starts to change. What activity order is the client with an aneurysm supposed to have? Bedrest, do not get these people up If the client with aneurysm is physically unstable, should you encourage turning, coughing and deep breathing? no, bedrest until the client is stable! What class of drugs is the client with an aneurysm most likely to be on? Antihypertensives What is the BIG danger with aneurysms of any type? Rupture, leads to shock and death If an aneurysm is ruptured how would you know it? 1_____________________________________________________ decreased LOG (restlessness), tachycardia, hypotension - all signs of shock

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    If an aneurysm ruptures what is the #1 priority? Get them to the operating room ASAP Is there anything that can be done for the client with a ruptured aneurysm before they get to the operating room? Th e post op thoracic ane ury s m is most 1ikely to have wh ich ty oe of tube? Yes, if avalla b le you ca n get them i nto antishock tro users but not if this causes a delay in getting them to the OR Chest tube, because the chest wa s o pen ed Th e post op abdominal a neu rysm repair client is most likely to have which type of tube? NG tube for decompression of bowel If you care for a client who is post-op for a repair of a femora popliteal resection what assessment must you make every hour for the first 24 hours? check the distal extremity (far from center) for color, temperature, pain & PULSE, also MUST document CHEST PA1N/M.1. What causes angina pectoris? Decreased blood supply to myocardium, resulting in ischemia & pain Describe the pain of ar gin a pectoris crushing substernal chest pain that may radiate What drug treats angina pectoris? Nitroglycerine How do you tell if a client has angina or an Ml? the pain of the two is similar, the way to tell the difference is if nitro & rest relieve the pain. For angina, nitro & rest relieve the pain, for Ml, nitro S. rest do not relieve the pain How many nitro tabs can you take before you call the doctor? 3 How many mins should lapse between the nitro pills you take? 5 mi n s - ta ke one nit ro tab every 5 mins 3 tim es, if n o relief, call MD By what route do you take nitro? sublingual What is the action of nitro? dilates coronary arteries to increase blood supply (02 supply) and reduces preload. What are the top 2 side effects of nitro? headache and hypotension What precaution must the nurse take when administering topical nitro paste? wear gloves, nurse may get a dose of the med Everyone with angina needs bypass surgery? t/f False EATING DISORDERS Anorexics are usually _______ under the age of _____. females, 25 The diagnosis is made when there is a wt loss of ____%or more of body weight. 15 (weigh < 35% of normal body wt), hospitalize if 30% wt loss A major mental/emotional nursing diagnosis seen in anorexia nervosa is ___________ Altered body image The pulse rate of anorexics is tachycardic or bradycardic? List the most common gynecologic symptom of anorexia nervosa? Bradycardic amenorrhea What is found over the body of the client with anorexia nervosa? lanugo (soft downy hair) What is the top priority in the care of the client with anorexia nervosa? intake of enough food to keep them alive, have them gain wt The best goal to evaluate the progress of the client with anorexia nervosa? an adequate weight gain NEWBORN CARE W hat is the apgar seal e? quick objective way to evaluate the vital functions of the newborn When is a pg ar scaring performed on infants? at one minute and again at 5 minutes after the birth Name the 5 criteria that are recorded on an apgar scale Cardiac status, respiratory effort, muscle tone, neuromuscular irritability & color Th e tota 1 apgar sco re ca n range from Oto ID The maximum scone an infant can receive on any one of the criteria is 2 A 10 on the apgar means the baby is in terrific health A 3 on the apgar means the baby is stillborn

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    On heart rate ar cardiac status, a 2 means that the HR Is above _______BPM. 100 On the HR criteria an Infant score a "1“ if their HR is _______ tha n D a nd ____________100 greater, less than In order to score a 0 on HR the infant must have a rate of _ Zero A h1gh score of 2 is given fa r respi rato ny effo rt if the new born Cries vigorously An infant is given a score of 1 if their respirations are _______ or ________ . Slow or irregular An infant is given a score of 0 for respiratory effort if ________ They do not breathe In order to get a score of 2 on muscle tone the infant must Move spontaneously (actively) To get a sea re of l o a t h e APGAR for m use le tone the newborn must place their extremities in ____________ Flexion A newborn receives a score of 0 on muscle tone when there is No movement (limp) To scare the maximum af 2 paints an neuromuscular reflex irritability the infant must ______________ . Cry If the neonate ________ , they will score a 1 on neuro muscular irritability. Grimaces To receive a 0 on reflex (neuromuscular: irritability the neonate must exhibit ____________ . No response To score a ma ximum sea re of 2 on colo r t he child m u st be ____. Totally pink If the child's _______ are ______ and the trunk -face abdomen are ________ , the child scores 1 an color Extremities are blue (cyanotic), Pink To get a 0 on color the i r f a n t is Totally blue, pale Acrocyanosis Temporary cyanotic condition, usually in newborns resulting in a bluish color around the lips, hands & fingernails, feet 3 toenails. May last for a few hours & disappear with warming. APPENDICITIS Appendicitis is an __________of the appendix due to _______ . inflammation, obstruction Appendicitis occurs most in what age group? 15 to 35 What is the most common complication of appendicitis? Peritonitis Peritonitis inflammation of the peritan sum What is the first sign of appendicitis? right upper quadrant pain What follows the RUQ. abd pain of appendicitis? N/V Where does the pain of appendicitis finally end up? RLQ What is the name of the RLQ abd pain where appendicitis pain finally localizes? McBurney's point What is present when rebound tenderness is present? Peritoneal inflammation What is the highest that the temp will be in appendicitis? 102 F What blood count is elevated in appendicitis? WBC What is the name for an elevated WBC? Leukocytosis W ha t is t he only tre atm e nt reco m m ended fo r appen diciti s? surgery - appendectomy Before the client with suspected appendicitis sees the physician, what should be avoided? pain meds, enemas, laxatives, food ! NPO To lessen pain, place the client in ___________ position. fowlers (a sitting position) (also use post op) Never apply __________to the area of the appendix. heat (it causes rupture)

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    After appendectomy, document in the nurses notes the return of _________ bowel sounds (peristalsis) NEPHROLITHIASIS What is the primary dietary prescription for calcium nephrolithiasis? Low calcium diet For the client with calcium nephrolithiasis the diet should be ________ ash. Acid If the kidney stone is calcium phosphate the diet must be low in _____ too. Phosphorous The primary diet treatment for uric add nephrolithiasis is Low pruine The client with uric acid nephrolithiasis should have a diet low in ____________ . Methionine What is methionine? The precursor of the amino acid cystine [precursor = material out of which something Is made) Name two foods high in methionine. Milk, eggs Clients with cystine nephrolithiasis should have a(n) _______ ash diet. Alkaline Increasing fluids to over SOOOcc per day is more effective in treating renal calculi (kidney stones) than any dietary modification. (T/F) True. It's more important to flush the urinary tract than worry about what you're eating. CANCER Neoplasm refers to benign and malignant tumors. [T/F) True Which type of tumor is more malignant? Differentiated or undifferentiated? Undifferentiated is worse to have [highly differentiated is better to have) When cancer spreads to a distant site it is called? Metastasis The cause of cancer is known. [T/F) False A person should have a yearly work up eKam for cancer detection over the age of _________ . 43 In general, cancer drugs have side effects in which 3 body systems? Gl, Hematologic |blood), Integumentary What are the 3 most common chemotherapeutic <31 side effects? N/V r Diarrhea, Stomatitis [oral sores) Clients receiving chemotherapy must be NPO. (T/F) False Is it pe rmissib le to give lidocaine visco us a c ( befo re mea Is) if the patient has chemotherapeutic stomatosis? [T/F) True With what solution should the client with chemotherapeutic stomatitis rinse pc [after meals)? H2O2 - hydrogen peroxide What lubricant can safely be applied to the cracked lips of chemotherapy stomatitis? K-Y Jelly Name the 3 hematologic side effects of chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia, Leukopenia, Anemia Which cells are low in thrombocytopenia? Platelets What drug should NOT be given to the patient with chemotherapeutic thrombocytopenia? ASA (aspirin) When should the nurse WITHHOLD IM injections in the client on chemotherapy? Only when their PLATELET count is down. What are the 3 abjective symptom s/signs of thrombocytooenia? Hint: P.E.E. Petechiae, Epistaxis, Ecchymosis What is epistaxis? Nose bleeds What is ecchymosis? Bruising What is petechiae? Small dot like pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin.

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    What blood cell is low in leukopenia? White blood cells When the ANC is below _ _ the person on chemotherapy will be placed on reverse isolation. 500 What is the #1 integumentary side effect of chemotherapy? Alopecia What is alopecia? Hair loss The hair loss due to chemotherapy is usually temporary? wrj True Can scalp tourniquets prevert chemotherapy alopecia? In some cases, yes Can ice packs to the scalp prevent chemotherapy alopecia? In some cases, yes CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE IN PREGNANCY CD ranks _ _ _ among the leading cause of maternal death. Fourth What is the #1 cause of CD of pregnancy? Rheumatic heart disease Pregnancy requires a increase in the cardiac output. 30-50% What is the #1 cause of maternal death in CD of pregnancy? Decompensation What is meant by decompensation? Failure of the heart to maintain adequate circulation. What will you see when you observe the neck of a client with CD of pregnancy? Distended neck veins -JVD What will you hear when you auscultate the heart of the client with CD of pregnancy? M urmurs What will you hear when you auscultate the lungs of the client with CD of pregnancy? Crackles-rales If the client with CD of pregnancy experiences sudden heart failure what is the MOST common thing you will see? Sudden onset of SOB (dyspnea J. What is the #1 treatment of CD during pregnancy? Rest What are the three most common drugs given to women with CD in pregnancy? Diuretics, Heparin, Digitalis Why are diuretics given to women with CD of pregnancy? To promote diuresis which will: -lower circulating blood volume -decrease preload -decrease the amount of blood the heart pumps. Why are anticoagulants (heparin only) given to women with CD of pregnancy? To prevent thrombophlebitis due to venous congestion, usually in legs. Why is digitalis given to women with CD of pregnancy? To increase the strength of the heart and to decrease the rate, rest the heart while making it mare efficient Can a woman with CD of pregnancy be given analgesics during labor? Yes, in fact they should be given analgesics, may get too anxious which is bad for the patient Can morphine be given to a woman with CD during labor? Yes, even though it negatively affects the fetus, remember morphine decreases preload and pain which rests the heart. What is the most common dietary modification for the woman with CD who shows signs of decompensation? Decreased sodium, decreased water (restriction) Is a C-section mandatory for delivery of a woman with CD of pregnancy? No Second to nest, what is very important treatment for CD of pregnancy? Weight control How long must the woman with CD of pregnancy be on bed rest after delivery? At least ore week What nutrients should be supplied in the diet of the pregnant woman with CD? Iron Folic acid Prevent anemia Ianemia always makes the heart work more) What are the two most common subjective complaints of the woman who is decompensating during labor? SOB Palpitations

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    Inaddition to the th ings you assess fo r in every wo ma n duri ng la bo r, what a dditia na1 assessment must you make for a woman with CD? You must assess lungs sounds frequently How often must you assess the lung sounds during the I 11 stage of labor? During active labor? During transition labor? Every 30 to 10 minutes In which position should a woman with CD in labor be? Semi recumbent, HOB up The nurse should limit the client's efforts to _____ during labor when CD Is present. Beer down CE5IUM IMPLANT What is the big danger to staff when caring for a client with cesium implant? Radiation hazard What are the three principles to protect yourself from radiation hazard? Distance, Shielding, Time Will the woman with a cesium implant have a foley? Yes From where the nurse should provide care to the client with cesium implant? The head of the bed How can the woman with cesium implant move in bed? Only from side to side What four symptoms in a patient with a cesium implant should be reported to the physician? Profuse vaginal discharge Elevated temp Nausea Vomiting (these indicate infection and perforation) Should pregnant staff care for a client with a cesium implant? No Can the woman with = cesium implant have the HOB elevated? Yes, only 45 degrees maximum From where should the nurse talk to the client? The entrance to the room Is bed rest necessary when a woman has cesium implant in place? Yes, absolute bed rest W ha t type of diet is tfi is worn an with acesiumimplanton? Low residue (decrease bowel motility) No nurse should attend the client with a cesium implant more than _ _ _ per day. 1/2 hour W ha t woul d you do if th e cesium impl ant cameo ut? Pick it up with forceps only - never touch with hand even if you are wearing gloves. Should the nurse provide perineal care for the client with a cesium implant? No, risk of radiation hazard CAST CARE AMD MAINTENANCE What part of your hand do you use to handle a wet cast? The palm Upon what do you support a cast while it dries? Pillows |no plastic covers) How long does it take a cast to dry? 24 hours Should you cover a wet cast? NO Should you use a heat lamp or hair dryer or fan to help dry a cast? No heat lamp and hair dryer Yes fan What signs or symptoms would you report if they were present after cast application? Numbness/Tingling, Burning, Pallor, Unequal ar absent pulses, Unequal coolness If there is inflammation under a cast, it will be evident in a ______ spot. Hot To prevent irritation of the skin near the edges of a cast the edges should be ___________ . Petaled What type of cast causes cast syndrome? A body cast What causes cast syndrome? Anxiety S. stress leading to sympathoadrenal shut down of the bowel What is the #1 symptom of cast syndrome? Nausea and vomiting due to bowel obstruction What is the #1 treatment of cast syndrome? NPO and NG tube far decompression

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    A dry cast is gray ar white? White A d ry cast is dul 1 or s hlny? Shiny A dry cast is dull or resonant to percussion? Resonant TRACTION Traction is used to _______& _______a fracture, relieve ________________and prevent ________ . Reduce and immobilize, muscle spasm; deformities Can skin traction be removed for skin care? Yes Can the client be removed from skeletal traction? No Name 3 types of skin traction Bucks, Bryants, Pelvic Name 3 types of skeletal traction Cranial tongs Thomas splints with Pearson attachments 9-3 degrees to 90 degrees What type of traction is most commonly used for hip fracture in adults? Bucks What type of traction is most commonly used for hip fractures in children? Bryants In what position should the bed be if the patient Is in pelvic traction? Semi-fowlers with knee gatch ed To ensure that Bryant's traction is working the child's hip/ sacrum should be _________ Off the bed enough to slip a hand between the sacram & the bed. What is the advantage of balanced counteraction? You car easily move the patient around in bed Patients in Russell's traction are particularly prore to Thrombophlebitis W hen a patle nt is in a B uck's t radio n they m ay tu rn to the _________side. Unaffected CATARACTS Define cataract Opacity of the crystallire lens Is surgery done immediately upon diagnosis of cataract? No, they usually wait until it interferes with AD.s What 3 most common visual defects occur with cataract? Cloudiness Diplopia (double vision) Photophobia (sensitivity to light) What are the two common treatments of cataract? Laser, surgical removal. Surgery called intraocular or estraocular lens extraction What does the eye look like when a client has cataracts? Cloudy, milky-white pupil What will the client be wearing after cataract surgery? A protective patch/shield on the operative eye for 24 hours, then a metal shield (AT NIGHT only) far 3 weeks When the client asks about the use of glasses or contacts after cataract surgery what would you say? If an intraocular lens is implanted they will NOT need glasses. If no lens is implanted, then contacts will be fitted for 3 months post-op, temporary thick glasses given immediately but will get a different prescription in 2 to 3 months What will be a high priority nursing diagnosis for a client post cataract surgery? Safety Should the client ambulate independently after cataract surgery? No, the patient should not ambulate independently, depth perception is altered. What positions are to be avoided after cata ra ct surgeny? Lying face down. Also, do not lie on operative side for a month. What are the post-operative signs of hemorrhage into the eye? Severe pain Restlessness What movements are to be avoided afte r cata ract surgery? Coughing, Sneezing, bending at the waist, Straining at stool Rubbing or touching eyes, Rapid head movements What positions are okay after cataract surgery? Do not lie on operative side; do not lie on back Should you use talcum powder with a post-op cataract client? No, it may cause sneezing; also, should avoid pepper. W hat a re t he three sign s of increa se d int ra o c ul ar p ressure? Pain (moderate to severe), Restlessness, Increased pulse rate

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    W hat is t he majo r a bjectwe in caring for a die nt after surgica1 cataract removal? To prevent pressure in or on the eyes When the lens is to be extracted for cataracts., what drugs are given preoperatrvely? Mydriatics, Dilators, Antibiotic drugs Igtts) What three drugs are given post-operatively for surgical cataract removal? Stool softeners, Antierr etics, Analgesics |mild to moderate) Give five causes of cataracts? Injury, Congenital, Exposure to heat, Heredity, Age CEUAC'S DISEASE Cel lac's d isease is a disease Malabsorption The client with celiacs cannot tolerate ___________ . Gluten Gluten is a Pratein W hat does gl ute n d o to the intestines of the die nt w ith celi ac's disease? It destroys the lining of the intestine. The stools of a client with celiac's disease are ______, ______ and _____ - _____ . Large, Greasy, Foul-smelling Clients with celiac's disease do not absorb what mineral? Iron Clients with celiac's disease don't absorb fats; therefore, they don't absorb Fat soluble vitamins What are the four fat-soluble vitamins? A, □ , E, K Malabsorption of which vitamin leads to bleeding disorder? Vitamin K, remember do not mix up potassium with Vitamin K What will the abdomen of clients with celiac's disease look like? What is the #1 treatment of celiac's disease? Distended with flatus Gluten-free diet Veggies are allowed or notallowed in diet of client with Celiac's disease? Allowed Fruits are allowed or not allowed? Allowed Grains of all kinds are prohibited. (T/F) False What grains are allowed in a gluten -free diet? Rice and corn What grains are notallowed in a gluten-free diet? Wheat, Oats, Rye, Alfalfa, Earley Are foods made with wheat, oat, or rye flour allowed? NO Is milk allowed on a gluten-free diet? YES Are meats allowed on a gluten-free diet? Yes, but watch for breaded meatsand hot dogs/lunch meats- may have grain in them and are rot allowed Are eggs allowed on a gluten-free diet? YES Is commercial ice cream allowed on a gluten-free diet? No, even though it is a milk product, commercial ice cream has GRAIN in it. Are puddings allowed on a gluten-free diet? No, for the same reason ice cream isn't Which soups are not allowed on a gluten free diet? Creamed soups- these often have flour CENTRAL LINES The #1 problem with central lines ___________ ? Infection How often should central line dressings be changed? QOD- every other day What type of dressing is applied to a central line insertion site? Sterile occlusive Can drugs be piggy backed into central —TPN? When changing central line tubing the patient should be told to _________ ? No, use another lumen. Turn his head away from the site, hold breath, and perform the Valsalva maneuver If a central line is found accidentally open the patient should be positioned on his ____________ . Left side STROKE A CVA is a __________ of the brain cells due to decreased __________ an d ______. Destruction; blood flow and oxygen Women have a (higher/lower) incidence of stroke th ar men? Lower

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    Name the three types of CVA Embolus, Thrombus, Hemorrhage Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of CVA (T/F) True Chronic abuse of alcohol increases risk of CVA. (T/FJ False Obesity increases risk of CVA (T/F) True Smoking increases the risk of CVA. (T/F) true Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of CVA (T/F) True, emboli particularly What is a TlA? Transient Ischemic Attack Warning sign of impending CVA (transient neurologic deficits of any kind can last 30 seconds to 24 hours) Do patients experiencing a CVA have a headache? yes The first sign of CVA is usually a __________ . Change in LOC The activity order in early management of CVA is ________. Absolute Bed Rest The patient with a recent CVA Is most likely to have fluids restricted or forced? Restricted How far should the HOB be up after CVA? 30 degrees Can the stroke victim be turned side-to-side? Yes How often should the CVA patient be turned or repositioned? Every 2 hours The CVA patient should be turned onto his paralyzed side no | longer than 2 hours. (T/F) False, the patient should not be on their paralyzed side for more than 20 minutes. ROM exercises should occur Q 2 hours in CVA patients. (T/F) False- every 4 hours or 3 times a day is enough To prevent urinary incontinence; the CVA patient should be catheterized. (T/F) False- remember incontinence will never be allowed as a reason for catheterization Which type of paralysis is typical of CVA- paraplegia, hemip legia o r q u= dri ol egia ? Hemiplegia What anatomical fact accounts for the left side of the body being controlled by the right brain? The motor-pyramidal-tracts cross over to the other side (decussate in the medulla) If the patient has right hemiplegia, he cannot move his ____& _ _ _& the stroke was on the _ _ _side of the brain. Right arm and right leg, left What is hemianopsia? Not being able to see one half of the field of vision. The client with hemianopsia should be taught to ______ Scan What is scanning? Moving the head from side to side to see the whole field of vision. If the client has right homonymous hemianopsia, the food on the _ _ _ side of the tray may be ignored. Right After meals, the nurse must always check _______ of the CVA client for ________ . Mouth (cheek), food Should a CVA patient have all four side rails up at all times? Should they be restrained? Side rails yes. Restraints- no, unless they are a danger to themselves or others When a patient does not understand INCOP.ilNG language, he is said to have ______ aphasia. Receptive When the CVA client understands your question but can't respond verbally correctly, he is said to have _ _ _aphasia. Expressive What is global aphasia? Both receptive and expressive Aphasia is most common if the stroke occurred in the (dominant/non-dominant) hemisphere of the brain. Dominant How do you tell which side of the person's brain is dominant? It is the side that controls their dominant hand, ie, a left- handed person has a dominant right hemisphere and conversely a right-hand person has a dominant left hemisphere

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    Far which type of aphasia are slow, short, simple directions most useful? Receptive Fa r whic h type aphasia is caref u1 li ste nln g and needs anticipation most useful? Expressive The lass of the ability to perform purposeful, skilled acts, ie. brushing teeth, is called _________ . Cytoxan cyclophosphamide Cisplatin Apraxia Hemorrhagic cystitis Peripheral neuropathy, constipation, ototoxicity Bleomycin Pulmonary fibrosis Adriamycin Cardiotoxic'rty Vincristine Peripheral neuropathy |foot drop, numbress/tingling, hoarseness, jaw pain} constipation (adynamic ileus due to neurotoxicity) DTIC- dome Flu-like symptoms Chemo-therapeutic Agent Toxicities Methotrexate Th e i nfant f ea rs ____________ m ost w hen hosp ita lized. Toxicto just about every organ except to heart, toxicity made worse with aspirin Separation from love object The toddler fears ___________mast when hospitalized. Separation from family Th e preschaa let fea rs sep arati on as we lias ________ when hospitalized. Mutilation- remember preschoolers have vivid imaginations...fantasy The toddler and preschooler will think that illness is caused by ____________ ■ Something they did wrong The school-aged hospitalized child is afraid of separation from Age group The school-aged child perceives the cause of illness to be external ar internal? Externa1, s he knows that iIIn es s is not a res uIt of ba d behavior. The adolescent who is hospitalized fears separation from __________and loss of ___________. Preschoolers may require physical restraint during painful procedures. (T/F) Peers, independence True Which age group engages in stalling tactics before painful procedures most? School-Age Which age groups are most likely to physically resist the nurse during procedures? Toddlers may require physical restraint for painful procedures. |-/Fi The meats that are highest In cholesterol are _______meats. School-age, adolescents True Organ meats liver, heart, brains, kidneys The meats that are second highest In cholesterol are the Shell seafood- shrimp, crab, lobster Egg white is (high/low) in cholesterol? Low Egg yolk is (high/low} in cholesterol? High The three meats lowest in cholesterol are _______ . _______ & ________ Chicken, pork, mutton Milk is (high/low} in cholesterol. LOW Is cheese high in cholesterol? Only moderate, not really that high

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