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Test Bank For Elemental Geosystems, 8th Edition

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    Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A physical geographer would likely NOT study A) the effects of the removal of dams on the Elwha River in Washington. B) the impact of Hurricane Sandy ʹ s landfall along the U.S. East Coast. C) the 9.0 magnitude earthquake in Japan in 2011. D) The diffusion of various religions from the so - called Middle East. 1) 2) Geography is described as A) a spatial science. B) an Earth science. C) a human science. D) a physical science. 2) 3) The word spatial refers to A) eras of time. B) things that are unique and special. C) items that relate specifically to society. D) the nature and character of physical space and the distribution of phenomena within it. 3) 4) Which is NOT true of geographers? A) They are Earth systems scientists. B) They use spatial analysis. C) They are concerned with spatial and temporal relationships. D) They are primarily concerned with place names. 4) 5) Geography A) does not use systems analysis. B) does not consider process in explaining systems. C) is not a science. D) is derived from geo and graphein; literally, ʺ to write Earth. ʺ 5) 6) ʺ Geography ʺ literally means A) map making. B) to write (about) Earth. C) the study of rocks. D) place memorization. 6) 7) The main methodology governing geographic inquiry A) involves spatial analysis. B) uses chronological organization. C) is field work. D) is behavioral analysis. 7) 8) Which of the following best describes the field of physical geography? A) Understanding soil development. B) The spatial analysis of all the physical elements, processes, and systems that make up the environment. C) The study of weather. D) Mapping of rock types. 8) 1

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    9) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, communication and diffusion refer to A) location. B) place. C) regions. D) human - Earth relationships. E) movement. 9) 10) Which of the following most accurately characterizes the goal of geography? A) Memorization of the names of places on world and regional maps. B) Memorization of the imports and exports of a country. C) The production of maps. D) Understanding distributions and movements across Earth. 10) 11) Which of the following terms characterizes the discipline of geography? A) Unscientific B) Integrative C) Eclectic D) Both eclectic and integrative 11) 12) Which of the following comprise the fundamental duality in the field of geography? A) Political versus environmental B) Economic versus political C) Physical versus human/cultural D) Physical versus economic 12) 13) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, resource management and sustainable growth refer to A) location. B) place. C) human - Earth relationships. D) movement. E) regions. 13) 14) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, latitude and longitude refer to A) location. B) place. C) human - Earth relationships. D) movement. E) regions. 14) 15) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, areas that display uniform characteristics refer to A) location. B) place. C) human - Earth relationships. D) movement. E) regions. 15) 16) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, characteristics of a site refers to A) location. B) place. C) human - Earth relationships. D) movement. E) regions. 16) 2

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    17) Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, the Cienega de Santa Clara, an ecotourism destination on the Colorado River delta, is best described within which of the five themes? A) location B) place C) human - Earth relationships D) movement E) regions 17) 18) Shale gas extraction using hydraulic fracturing falls within which of the five themes? A) location B) place C) human - Earth relationships D) movement E) regions 18) 19) Which of the following is the most strongly supported by extensive hypothesis testing? A) Educated guess B) Speculation C) Theory D) Dogma 19) 20) Which of the following is NOT true of scientific theories? A) They are broad in scope because they unify known facts about the world. B) They are based on natural laws (such as those pertaining to gravity, relativity, atomic theory, etc.). C) They are based on hypothesis testing. D) They are absolute truths and can never be proven wrong. 20) 21) The key idea behind the scientific method is A) unbridled speculation about the world. B) the use of intuition in testing theories. C) the testing of ideas through controlled observations and experiments. D) an appeal to supernatural explanations when natural explanations have not yet been found for a phenomenon. 21) 22) The scientific method is described by which of the following? A) A single, definitive method for doing science. B) Irreproducible results accepted as theory. C) The development of hypotheses for testing and prediction. D) The acceptance of supernatural explanations for phenomenon until science proves otherwise. 22) 23) ________ is mass that assumes a physical shape and occupies space. A) Entropy B) A system C) Energy D) Matter 23) 24) The capacity to change the motion of, or to do work on, matter is the definition of A) acceleration. B) plasma. C) thermodynamics. D) system. E) energy. 24) 3

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    25) Which of the following is an example of a closed system? A) An automobile B) A river drainage basin C) A forest D) Earth (in terms of matter) 25) 26) In terms of matter and resources, Earth is essentially a(n) ________ system; In terms of energy, Earth is a(n) ________ system. A) closed; open B) open; closed C) closed; closed D) open; open 26) 27) Which of the following is INCORRECT? A) Earth represents an open system in terms of energy. B) Earth represents a vast integrated system. C) New resources and matter are being added to Earth ʹ s systems all the time. D) Earth represents a closed system in terms of matter. 27) 28) Systems encountered in nature at Earth ʹ s surface, such as a forest, are A) open systems in terms of matter. B) closed systems in terms of energy. C) open systems in terms of energy. D) both open systems in terms of energy and open systems in terms of matter. E) both closed systems in terms of energy and open systems in terms of matter. 28) 29) With respect to air, water, and material resources, which of the following is TRUE? A) A forest is an open system. B) A forest is a closed system. C) A forest is an open system in terms of air, but closed in terms of material resources. D) A forest is an open system in terms of water, but closed in terms of energy resources. 29) 30) What type of feedback maintains stability in a system; i.e., what type of feedback keeps a system functioning properly? A) Positive B) Neutral C) Negative 30) 31) If feedback information encourages a change in a system, what type of feedback has occurred? A) Neutral B) Positive C) Negative D) Not enough information is given to indicate what type of feedback has occurred. 31) 32) Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched? A) Steady state equilibrium  small fluctuations about an average condition B) Tipping point  same as steady state equilibrium C) Threshold  b alance of inputs and outputs D) Dynamic equilibrium  large fluctuations that changes abruptly over time 32) 33) Which of the following best describes the condition of steady - state equilibrium? A) System inputs always exactly balance outputs so the system never changes. B) System inputs produce large, random fluctuations in output, forcing the system into a new state of equilibrium. C) System inputs and outputs fluctuate around a stable average so the system does not move far from its average condition. D) Systems slowly adjust to long - term changes in input and output. 33) 4

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    34) As arctic temperatures rise, summer sea ice and glacial melt accelerates; lighter color surfaces are thereby replaced with darker - colored surfaces leading to more absorption and surface heating. This is an example of a(n) ________ feedback. A) dynamic B) positive C) negative D) reverse 34) 35) If increased levels of carbon dioxide lead to further increases in temperature by promoting the release of even more carbon dioxide from the oceans, this means that ________ feedback has occurred and that the planet is ________. A) positive; out of equilibrium B) negative; out of equilibrium C) negative; in equilibrium D) positive; in equilibrium 35) 36) The carbon dioxide absorbed by plants is an example of an ________ to a forest and an ________ from the atmosphere. A) input; input B) output; input C) output; output D) input; output 36) 37) A large flood in a river may cause abrupt shifts leading to the carving of a new channel. The point at which this change occurs is a(n) ________. A) input B) type of dynamic equilibrium condition C) type of metastable equilibrium D) threshold 37) 38) If global temperatures increased and caused more water vapor to enter the air and more snow to fall in cooler latitudes, then the initial increase in snowfall would be a ________ feedback, whereas a sustained increase in the temperatures could lead to the loss of snow cover even at those latitudes and cause a ________ feedback. A) positive; positive B) negative; negative C) positive; negative D) negative; positive 38) 39) Which of the following is TRUE of models? A) They are simplified, idealized representations of the real world. B) They are never used in physical geography because of their inherent limitations. C) They perfectly replicate the real world, but at a different scale. D) They complicate our understanding of Earth system science. 39) 40) According to the text, the three inorganic Earth realms are the A) stratosphere, magnetosphere, and troposphere. B) hydrosphere, lithosphere, and atmosphere. C) atmosphere, geoid, and homosphere. D) thermosphere, lithosphere, heterosphere. 40) 41) Which of the following statements regarding the development of models by scientists is NOT true? A) Adjusting the variables in a model simulates different conditions and allows predictions of possible system operations. B) Most scientists believe that any system can eventually be modeled with 100 percent accuracy. Thus, models can be perfect representations of reality. C) A model is a simplification designed to help us understand complex processes. D) A model is only as good as the assumptions and accuracy of information upon which it is based. 41) 5

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    42) Living systems are considered A) inorganic. B) abiotic. C) part of the lithosphere. D) biotic. 42) 43) Which of the following is TRUE of the biosphere? A) It is not connected to the overlapping inorganic spheres. B) It extends from the floor of the oceans to 8 km (5 mi.) into the atmosphere. C) It is never referred to as the ecosphere. D) It is static, never to rarely changing. 43) 44) Which of the following is TRUE of the biosphere? A) Life processes generally are shaped to the abiotic spheres. B) It is more a hypothetical concept than an actual ʺ sphere ʺ in physical geography terms. C) It only occurs in the hydrosphere. D) It is the least important of the four ʺ spheres. ʺ 44) 45) The realization that Earth was a sphere A) had to wait until the modern era (1800s). B) did not occur in Europe until the first voyages of Columbus. C) was first made by Pythagoras, 580 - 500 B.C. D) was made by Isaac Newton. 45) 46) Which of the following statements about Earth is CORRECT? A) Earth is perfectly spherical. B) It is elongated. C) The equatorial diameter is 42 km (26 mi.) greater than the polar diameter. D) Earth is the second largest planet in the solar system. 46) 47) The oblateness of Earth occurs at the A) subtropics. B) equator. C) prime meridian. D) poles. 47) 48) The diameter of Earth is largest when measured around the A) subtropics. B) prime meridian. C) equator. D) poles. 48) 49) Isaac Newton reasoned that Earth was NOT perfectly spherical because of A) gravitational force created by Earth ʹ s more rapid rotation at the equator. B) gravitational force created by Earth ʹ s more rapid rotation at the poles. C) centrifugal force created by Earth ʹ s more rapid rotation at the equator. D) centrifugal force created by Earth ʹ s more rapid rotation at the poles. 49) 50) The science that specifically attempts to determine Earth ʹ s shape and size by surveys and mathematical means is called A) geodesy. B) astronomy. C) geology. D) cartography. E) geography. 50) 6

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    51) Who made a significant, early contribution to cartography by adding a grid and orienting the map with north at the top? He also divided the circumference of Earth into 360 °, with each degree comprising 60 minutes, and each minute comprising 60 seconds. A) Magellan  in the sixteenth century A.D. B) Pythagoras  in the sixth century B.C. C) Sir Isaac Newton  in the seventeenth century A.D. D) Ptolemy  in the second century A.D. 51) 52) A parallel of latitude A) is a line which passes through both poles. B) measures longitude. C) is used to measure distances east and west of the equator. D) is used to measure distances north or south of the equator. E) is called a meridian. 52) 53) An angular distance measured north or south of the equator is termed A) latitude. B) Greenwich distance. C) zenith. D) longitude. 53) 54) An angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian is termed A) longitude. B) latitude. C) Greenwich distance. D) zenith. 54) 55) How far north you live from the equator is measured as your ________, whereas an imaginary line marking all those places at that same distance north of the equator is called a ________. A) meridian; longitude B) parallel; latitude C) latitude; parallel D) longitude; meridian E) location; place 55) 56) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the 0° prime meridian? A) International agreement regarding the location of the prime meridian was not resolved until the 1980s when a treaty was completed. B) Earth ʹ s prime meridian passes through the old Royal Observatory at Greenwich, England, as set by an 1884 treaty. C) The key to measuring angular distances east and west of the prime meridian was the development of accurate compasses. D) The prime meridian passes through Paris, France. 56) 57) The basis for defining the length of a day is the fact that A) Earth rotates east to west. B) Earth does not rotate; rather, it revolves. C) Earth rotates on its axis in 24 hours; i.e., it rotates 15° of longitude per hour. D) Earth moves through 365.25 days a year in its orbit about the Sun. 57) 7

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    58) As Figure 1.15 shows, the International Dateline follows generally the A) principal meridian. B) prime (0°) meridian. C) 180° meridian. D) daylight savings line. 58) 59) Latitude is A) the angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian. B) the angular distance measured north or south of the equator. C) the basis for establishing meridians. D) portrayed on a globe as lines that cross the equator at right angles. 59) 60) Longitude is A) the basis for establishing parallels. B) an angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian. C) determined by Sun altitude above the horizon. D) an angular distance measured north or south of the equator. 60) 61) If you were standing at 20° north latitude you would be within which latitudinal geographic zone? A) Subarctic B) Equatorial C) Midlatitude D) Tropical E) Subtropical 61) 62) If you were standing at 60° north latitude you would be within which latitudinal geographic zone? A) Antarctic B) Subarctic C) Midlatitude D) Subtropical E) Subantarctic 62) 8

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    63) A line connecting all points along the same longitudinal angle is called a A) prime latitudinal angle. B) meridian. C) parallel. D) great circle. 63) 64) Which of the following is NOT true of meridians? A) They are used to measure east - west angular distances along parallels. B) They are lines that run in an east - west direction. C) All meridians are the same length. D) They cross parallels at right angles. 64) 65) Which of the following is TRUE of the prime meridian? A) It is used to determine latitude using lines that run east and west. B) It is that place on Earth where the days officially change. C) It was not established until 1884 and is centered on an observatory near London. D) It was first used in the 1500s at the time of initial circumnavigation voyages. 65) 66) Which of the following is TRUE of the 1884 international treaty establishing the prime meridian (0°)? A) No consensus was met at the 1884 treaty, putting off the decision until a 1907 treaty was passed. B) The United States designated the Washington meridian for land maps and marine maps. C) The Greenwich meridian was established as the prime meridian b y the treaty. D) Each country selected its own prime meridian for their marine maps. 66) 67) A great circle is A) a correct magnetic compass direction on a flat map. B) any parallel of latitude. C) a circle of circumference whose center coincides with the center of Earth. D) the longest distance between two places on the surface of Earth. 67) 68) Earth ʹ s equator is an example of A) a prime meridian. B) a small circle. C) a great circle. D) a line of equal longitude. 68) 69) The letters A.M. stand for A) ante meridiem. B) after meridian. C) after morning. D) after midnight. E) ante majolica. 69) 70) The letters P.M. stand for A) previous morning. B) possible meridian. C) post meridiem. D) prior majolica. 70) 9

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    71) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is A) established 24 standard meridians around the globe at equal intervals from the prime meridian. B) replaced Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and became the legal reference for official time in all countries. C) the same as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). D) two - hours ahead of Zulu time, indicating the single moment when all locations on the planet are on the same calendar day. 71) 72) UTC refers to A) Universal Time Conference. B) Universal Time Circles. C) Coordinated Universal Time. D) the International Date Line. 72) 73) UTC is based on A) average time calculations from atomic clocks collected worldwide B) very precise pendulum motion in Greenwich, U.K. C) the pulse rate of pulsar stars. D) Big Ben 73) 74) If City A is located 35° west of City B, the time at City A is ________ that at City B. A) earlier than B) earlier during daylights saving only than C) the same as D) later than 74) 75) The difference in Sun time between two places located 30° in longitude apart from one another is A) 30 seconds. B) 30 minutes. C) one hour. D) two hours. E) three hours. 75) 76) If a clock on a ship indicates that it is 2:00 P.M. in its home port, while another clock on the ship indicates that it is 12:00 noon at the ship ʹ s present location, what is the difference in longitude between the ship ʹ s position and its home port? A) The ship is 30° west of its home port. B) The ship is 2° west of its home port. C) The ship is 45° west of its home port. D) The ship is 30° east of its home port. E) The ship is 2° east of its home port. 76) 77) If you began a trip at 60° west, 20° north and traveled 120° farther west and 50° south, your new position would be A) 30° north, 120° west. B) the International Dateline at 30° south latitude. C) the International Dateline at 70° north latitude. D) the Greenwich meridian at 70° north latitude. E) the Greenwich meridian at 30° south latitude. 77) 10

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    78) If it is 10:00 PM on July 3rd at 30° west, what date and time is it at 15° east? A) July 3rd; 9 P.M. B) July 3rd; 11 P.M. C) July 3rd; 6 P.M. D) July 4th; 2 A.M. E) July 4th; 1 A.M. 78) 79) Travelers flying west from Los Angeles (118° W) to Tokyo (139° E) will cross the ________ and, as a result, they will ________ when crossing this meridian. A) International Dateline; lose a day (Example: Saturday becomes Sunday.) B) International Dateline; gain a day (Example: Sunday becomes Saturday.) C) prime meridian; lose a day (Example: Saturday becomes Sunday.) D) prime meridian; gain a day (Example: Sunday becomes Saturday.) 79) 80) Standard time zones A) are only used in the developed countries. B) have yet to be generally established. C) are spaced at 5° intervals of longitude in North America. D) are 15° wide because Earth rotates through that distance in one hour. 80) 81) If it is 10:00 A.M. in Miami, Florida (Eastern time zone), what time is it in Los Angeles, California, located 3 time zones to the west in the Pacific Time zone? A) 1 P.M. B) 2 P.M. C) 8 A.M. D) 7 A.M. 81) 82) The practice of setting time ahead or behind during the year, out of coordination with the Sun, is termed A) Coordinated Universal Time. B) Greenwich Mean Time. C) Standard time. D) Daylight Saving Time. 82) 83) The part of geography that embodies map making is known as A) geodesy. B) theodesy. C) cartography. D) calligraphy. 83) 84) A scale of 1 inch = 8 miles is an example of a A) written scale. B) relative scale. C) graphic scale. D) representative fraction. 84) 85) A scale of 1:24,000 is regarded as A) a small scale compared to a scale of 1:20,900,000. B) a large scale. C) a scale appropriate for a world globe. D) an intermediate scale. 85) 86) A scale of 1:900,000 is ________a scale of 1:24,000. A) twice as much as B) equal to C) larger than D) smaller than 86) 87) If you wanted a map with a lot of detail of a small area you would want a A) an intermediate scale. B) a small scale map. C) a world globe. D) a large scale map. 87) 11

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    88) A map scale of 1:63,360 is equivalent to A) one inch on the map equals 2,000 feet on the ground. B) one inch on the map equals 24,000 inches on the ground. C) one inch on a map equals 5 miles on the ground. D) one inch on a map equals 1 mile on the ground. 88) 89) A scale given as ʺ one centimeter to one kilometer ʺ is an example of a A) representative fraction. B) graphic scale. C) relative scale. D) written scale. 89) 90) Which type of map scale would be appropriate to use if the map were to be enlarged by photocopying? A) Relative B) Written C) Representative fraction D) Graphic 90) 91) The larger the scale of a map, the ________ the area covered by the map and the ________ detail it provides. A) larger; more B) larger; less C) smaller; less D) smaller; more 91) 92) The larger the denominator in a representative fraction, the ________ the scale of the map. A) smaller B) larger 92) 93) The amount of detail on large scale maps is generally ________ than on than on small scale maps. A) less B) greater C) It is impossible to compare the relative detail of the same features on maps of different scales. 93) 94) The transformation of a spherical global to a 2D surface is a A) globe. B) diagram. C) map projection. D) cone. 94) 95) Which of the following describes the property of equal area on a map? A) Equivalence B) Conformality C) Equidistance D) Proximity 95) 96) Which map project preserves the property of true shape? A) Equivalent B) Equidistant C) Conformal D) Proximal 96) 97) Which of the following possesses all of Earth ʹ s properties of area, shape, direction, proximity, and distance, CORRECTLY? A) A world globe B) Alber ʹ s equal - area conic projection C) Robinson projection D) Mercator projection 97) 98) Where does the greatest distortion in a Mercator projection occur? A) In the middle latitudes B) The equator C) Towards the poles D) There is no distortion in a Mercator projection. 98) 99) A line of tangency (also called a standard line) is a line A) divides Earth into two equal halves. B) along which no distortion occurs. C) along which shearing occurs. D) that always corresponds to a great circle. 99) 12

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    100) On which one of the following projections do great circle routes appear as straight lines? A) A gnomonic projection B) Goode ʹ s homolosine projection C) Any conic projection D) Mercator projection 100) 101) On the Mercator projection, areas at high latitudes appear A) larger than areas of the same size nearer to the equator. B) the same size as areas of the same size nearer to the equator. C) smaller than areas of the same size nearer to the equator. 101) 102) Which map projection is best at eliminating distortion? A) Albers equal - area projection. B) Robinson projection. C) Mercator projection. D) All map projections distort. 102) 103) GPS units are A) a metric version of longitude and latitude. B) accurately allow determination of longitude and latitude. C) not available to the public; they are only available to the military. D) 1 60 th of a Greenwich Precision Second. 103) 104) Which of the following is TRUE about Global Positioning System (GPS)? A) GPS is the same as remote sensing. B) GPS helped accurately determined the height of Mt. Everest. C) GPS has no scientific uses, but are great for recreational purposes. D) GPS is used solely by the military, who share information with physical geographers. 104) 105) Remote sensing is A) based on the principle that surfaces must be physically handled and directly measured for study. B) a subjective determination of temperature. C) an earthbound technique not used in modern satellites. D) the monitoring of a distant object without physical contact. 105) 106) Which of the following satellite remote sensing platforms was launched in 2013? A) Topex Poseidon B) Landsat 8 C) Radarsat - 1 D) Goes - 12 106) 107) A satellite imaging system that beams electromagnetic energy at a surface and then records the energy that is reflected is classified as a(n) ________ system. A) photographic B) active C) passive D) holographic 107) 108) Which of the following is an example of an active remote sensing device? A) Film B) LiDAR C) Infrared sensor D) Video camera 108) 109) Which of the following is FALSE? A) Satellite weather images are an example of remote sensing. B) GIS represents an important planning tool. C) GIS stands for geographic information system. D) A GIS model does not require the use of a map. 109) 13

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    110) Which of the following best describes Geographic Information Systems? A) A constellation of satellites for accurately determining location anywhere near Earth ʹ s surface. B) Computer - b ased tool for management and analysis of geographic information. C) Acquiring information about objects without having physical contact with them. D) Deriving accurate measurements from photographs. 110) 111) The adjusting of geospatial datasets in real time to make changes to maps and other visual models is called A) geovisualization. B) geographic synchronization. C) global positioning. D) remote sensing. 111) 112) Which of the following best describes geographic information science (GISci)? A) Deriving accurate measurements from photographs. B) Techniques for adjusting geospatial datasets in real time. C) Computer - b ased tool for management and analysis of geographic information. D) Field that develops the capabilities of GIS for use within geography and other disciplines. 112) TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹ T ʹ if the statement is true and ʹ F ʹ if the statement is false. 113) Geography is a discipline primarily concerned with place names. 113) 114) The essential approach in geographic studies is spatial analysis. 114) 115) The geographic theme of place refers to absolute and relative position on Earth. 115) 116) Areas that display a degree of uniformity are called regions. 116) 117) Migration and diffusion across Earth ʹ s surface is described under the principal geographic theme of movement. 117) 118) Conditions that change in an experiment or model are called variables. 118) 119) Photosynthesis in a plant leaf is an example of an open - system operation. 119) 120) Positive feedback tends to amplify or encourage response in system operations. 120) 121) Negative feedback tends to stabilize a system. 121) 122) The ʺ balance of nature ʺ that characterizes well - functioning ecosystems occurs because of predominantly positive feedback mechanisms. 122) 123) A model is essentially a simplification of natural systems. 123) 124) Pure science frequently involves the making of value judgments about the moral or political correctness of a fact, idea, or theory. 124) 125) Scientific theories are capable of generating predictions. 125) 14

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    126) Because scientific ideas are tested, they can be corrected when they are wrong. 126) 127) Longitude measures distances east or west of a prime meridian on Earth ʹ s surface. 127) 128) Latitude is the angular distance measured north or south of the equator from the center of Earth and it describes a parallel line on the surface. 128) 129) ʺ Longitude ʺ is the name of an angle, and ʺ meridian ʺ is the name of an imaginary line that connects all points along the same longitude. 129) 130) The Greek astronomer, geography, and mathematician Ptolemy, despite his early works in mapping, has had little lasting impact on cartography. 130) 131) The midlatitudes stretch from approximately 66.5° N/S to the poles. 131) 132) There are 180° of latitude (90° N and S, respectively) and 360° of longitude (180° E and W, respectively). 132) 133) Coordinated Universal Time is the present name for world standard time. 133) 134) The prime meridian and the 180th meridian are opposite halves of the same great circle. 134) 135) A meridian is 360° in length. 135) 136) All parallels are 360° in length. 136) 137) The day officially changes on Earth at the prime meridian. 137) 138) There are 48 time zones, each approximately 7.5° in width. 138) 139) If it is July 3rd in Tokyo (139° E), it is July 4th in Los Angeles (118° W). 139) 140) When Daylight Saving Time is in effect, clocks ʺ spring forward ʺ one hour in the Spring (Example: 1:00 A.M. becomes 2:00 A.M.) and ʺ fall back ʺ one hour in the Fall (Example: 2:00 A.M. becomes 1:00 A.M.). 140) 141) A great circle route is the shortest distance between any two points on Earth ʹ s surface. 141) 142) A map scale of 1:24,000 is considered a small scale as compared to a scale of 1:20,900,000, which is considered a large scale. 142) 143) A large scale map shows a large area, but with less detail than a small scale map. 143) 144) The globe is the only map that accurately portrays all spatial relationships characteristic of Earth ʹ s surface. 144) 145) An equivalent map projection preserves true shape. 145) 15

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